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- Path: sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!hri.com!snorkelwacker.mit.edu!galois!riesz!jbaez
- From: jbaez@riesz.mit.edu (John C. Baez)
- Newsgroups: sci.physics
- Subject: Re: Did electric/magnetic symmetry "break"?
- Message-ID: <1992Sep6.185028.16384@galois.mit.edu>
- Date: 6 Sep 92 18:50:28 GMT
- References: <1992Sep5.073528.16705@asl.dl.nec.com> <mcirvin.715710107@husc8> <mcirvin.715718860@husc8>
- Sender: news@galois.mit.edu
- Organization: MIT Department of Mathematics, Cambridge, MA
- Lines: 27
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-
- In article <mcirvin.715718860@husc8> mcirvin@husc8.harvard.edu (Mcirvin) writes:
- >mcirvin@husc8.harvard.edu (Mcirvin) writes:
- >
- >>In what units? I don't think this is the case if hbar=c=1.
- >
- >Aieee! I take this back. Mr. Bollinger is more or less right: in
- >Gaussian units with hbar=c=1, the ration of the Dirac magnetic
- >monopole's charge to the electronic charge is 137.036/2, or
- >about 68.5. What's really fixed, independently of the size of
- >the electronic charge, is the *product* of the two quantities,
- >which is 1/2 in these units.
- >
- >The relation is fixed by quantum-mechanical considerations, according
- >to the reasoning of Dirac. Both Sakurai's black book and Jackson
- >cover this well.
- >
- >--
- >Matt McIrvin, Cambridge, Massachusetts, USA
-
- Honest, I took at look at Terry's strange number 63 and did a quick
- check to see if it was the fine structure constant over 2, which it
- wasn't. But if he meant 68.5 then I guess it's okay. Although as
- Matt pointed out, it makes infinitely more sense to say that Dirac
- arrived at a constraint on the *product* of the electron and monopole charges.
- This is a statement that is independent of units. I gave an explanation of this
- effect in my series of articles on braids and quantization. It's a nice
- piece of topological reasoning - maybe one of the first uses of characteristic
-