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- Path: sparky!uunet!mcsun!uknet!comlab.ox.ac.uk!oxuniv!loader
- From: loader@vax.oxford.ac.uk
- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: Partitioning of uncountable sets
- Message-ID: <1992Sep8.162939.8744@vax.oxford.ac.uk>
- Date: 8 Sep 92 15:29:39 GMT
- References: <1992Sep8.182706.90039@vaxc.cc.monash.edu.au>
- Organization: Oxford University VAX 6620
- Lines: 19
-
- In article <1992Sep8.182706.90039@vaxc.cc.monash.edu.au>, kevin@vaxc.cc.monash.edu.au writes:
- > A proof that every uncountable set can be partioned into two uncountable
- > sets.
- > Let X be an uncountable set. Consider the set of ordered pairs, (x,0),(x,1)
- > where x is in X. Call this set Y. Then Y is also uncountable, moreover,
- > {(x,0) with x in X}=Y(0) and {(x,1) with x in X}=Y(1) are both uncountable.
- > But the cardinaltiy of X is the cardinality of Y. Thus, there is a bijection
- ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
- How exactly does one prove this without AC? If I remember correctly,
- "for all infinite cardinals a; a = 2a" is independent of ZF (without AC), and
- ZF+"2a=a, a infinite" is strictly weaker than ZFC. Of course, the difference
- between uncountable and infinite is irrelavant here as ZF proves
- 2 . omega = omega
-
- > f from Y to X. f(Y(0)) and f(Y(1)) form the desired partition of X.
- > The proof is of course easier if one assumes A.C, which I have avoided.
- >
- > Love,
- > Kevin Davey.
-