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- From: mkrogers@unix.amherst.edu (MICHAEL K ROGERS)
- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: Why is slope denoted by m?
- Message-ID: <BvzCLI.3GD@unix.amherst.edu>
- Date: 11 Oct 92 23:15:17 GMT
- References: <11313.Oct1102.17.0792@virtualnews.nyu.edu>
- Sender: news@unix.amherst.edu (No News is Good News)
- Organization: Amherst College
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-
- D. J. Bernstein (brnstnd@nyu.edu) wrote:
- : In article <1992Oct7.181405.18957@unlinfo.unl.edu> kwright@hoss.unl.edu (Kevin Wright) writes:
- : > We use Z for the integers because of the German 'Zahlen' and we have
- : > F for a closed set because of the French 'Ferme' and we have R for rings
- : > because of the English word 'ring.'
- :
- : No. According to Harvey Cohn (Advanced Number Theory, page 49), ``ring''
- : is a contraction of ``Zahlring,'' a German word introduced by Hilbert.
- : One might argue about the closeness of German ``ring'' and English
- : ``ring,'' but the history of ``ring'' is not what you say.
-
- 'Ring' in German means 'ring' in English (hence, I suppose,
- 'anneau' in French)--so I'm not sure what there is to argue
- about. Also, I know that I use R for rings because I speak
- English. Unfortunately, I don't have Cohn's book. Does he
- say that the mathematical English word 'ring' is a contraction
- of 'Zahlring'? If so, it seems that Kevin Wright's comments
- are consistent with yours.
-
- BTW, any idea why English has the word 'field' whereas French
- and German have the word for body, 'corps' and 'Korpen' resp.
-
- -mike
-