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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Path: sparky!uunet!snorkelwacker.mit.edu!galois!riesz!jbaez
- From: jbaez@riesz.mit.edu (John C. Baez)
- Subject: Re: too intuitive to prove
- Message-ID: <1992Oct8.195544.14210@galois.mit.edu>
- Sender: news@galois.mit.edu
- Nntp-Posting-Host: riesz
- Organization: MIT Department of Mathematics, Cambridge, MA
- References: <1992Oct8.053608.24694@u.washington.edu>
- Date: Thu, 8 Oct 92 19:55:44 GMT
- Lines: 14
-
- In article <1992Oct8.053608.24694@u.washington.edu> menasian@u.washington.edu writes:
- >A group of us are working on a problem that is far too obvious for us to
- >grasp. We need to prove, either formally or informally, that a relaion R
- >on a set A is symmetric if and only R=R^(-1)
- >
- >We're looking for either ideas to start us off or a complete proof.
- >(a complete proof is, of course, perfered)
-
- This is an "unravel the definitions and bingo!" sort of proof. I
- suggest you write down the definition of R being symmetric very
- carefully in terms of conditions on R(x,y) for all x,y in A, and
- similarly write down the definition of R = R^{-1}, and you will see
- that they are the same.
-
-