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- From: chalcraft@uk.tele.nokia.fi (Adam Chalcraft)
- Subject: Re: Another induction problem
- In-Reply-To: weemba@sagi.wistar.upenn.edu's message of 30 Aug 92 22:19:39 GMT
- Message-ID: <CHALCRAFT.92Aug31105002@laurel.uk.tele.nokia.fi>
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- Organization: cpd
- References: <ARA.92Aug30103547@camelot.ai.mit.edu> <87431@netnews.upenn.edu>
- Date: Mon, 31 Aug 1992 08:50:02 GMT
- Lines: 34
-
- Any chance of explaining how an induction can get that complicated?
-
- Ordinary induction works because w (read omega, the ordinal) is well-ordered,
- so there must be a minimal counter-example.
- "Two deep" induction (of the form: Induce over pairs (x,y), where a pair
- (x,y) < (x',y') iff x<x' or (x=x' and y<y'), i.e. so long as x goes down, I
- don't care how much y goes up) works because w^2 is well-ordered.
- My thesis goes up to w^3.
- The proof that Conway's Sylver Coinage game (see Winning Ways) terminates
- works because w^w is well-ordered.
-
- There are other well-ordered sets, of course, but the very definition of
- ordinals means that every well-ordered set is order-equivalent to an ordinal.
-
- Maybe I've missed something. Can induction exist without relying on a well-
- ordered set? Are we talking about transfinite induction? But it seems to me
- that the complexity of any induction scheme can be described by quoting the
- ordinal it relies on.
-
- Of course, writing down an ordinal can be tricky (Challenge for the naive
- reader: Devise a general scheme for writing down any ordinal :-) :-) :-)),
- but is that really the major conceptual difficulty here?
-
- Thanks.
- --
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