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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Path: sparky!uunet!wri!news
- From: roach@bikini.wri.com (Kelly Roach)
- Subject: Re: Can you prove it?
- Message-ID: <1992Aug20.210400.1773@wri.com>
- Sender: news@wri.com
- Nntp-Posting-Host: bikini.wri.com
- Organization: Wolfram Research, Inc.
- References: <1992Aug20.055633.19046@nuscc.nus.sg>
- Date: Thu, 20 Aug 1992 21:04:00 GMT
- Lines: 49
-
- In article <1992Aug20.055633.19046@nuscc.nus.sg>
- bhonsle@bhonsle.iss.nus.sg (Shailendra K Bhonsle) writes:
- > Hi
- > I have a simple problem, can you prove or disprove it? I will appreciate
- all replies:
- >
- > Problem:
- >
- > Prove that for primes p & q, q<p
- >
- > if 2^(p-1) == 1 (mod q^2)
- >
- > then either 2^(q-1) == 1 (mod q^2) or q | p-1 { q divides (p-1}
-
-
- The case q=2 is trivial, so suppose q is odd. Let
-
- ord(2,q^2) == minimum x>0 such that 2^x==1 (mod q^2)
-
- By elementary number theory,
-
- (1) ord(2,q^2) | phi(q^2) == q(q-1)
-
- where phi() is the Euler phi function. Now suppose
-
- 2^(p-1) == 1 (mod q^2)
- 2^(q-1) != 1 (mod q^2)
-
- These equations give us
-
- (2) ord(2,q^2) | p-1
- (3) ord(2,q^2) does not divide (q-1)
-
- Putting (1) and (3) together we get
-
- (4) q | ord(2,q^2)
-
- Putting (2) and (4) together we get q | p-1.
-
- QED
-
-
- We need q prime to get (4). We didn't really
- need p to be prime nor q<p for the proof to work. We
- just need p to be odd (for the trivial case q=2).
-
-
-
-
-