home *** CD-ROM | disk | FTP | other *** search
- Newsgroups: alt.usage.english
- Path: sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!agate!boulder!csn!cherokee!uswmrg!tom_schwengler.mrg.uswest.com!tom_schwengler
- From: tom_schwengler@msmgate.mrg.uswest.com (skeptic Frenchman)
- Subject: Re: Plurals
- Message-ID: <1993Jan28.125628.21116@uswmrg.mrg.uswest.com.mrg.uswest.com>
- XXXDate: Thu, 28 Jan 93 10:55:07 GMT
- XUserAgent: Nuntius v1.1.1d8
- XXXMessageID: <A78D6C0B8D020123@tom_schwengler.mrg.uswest.com>
- Organization: U S West M.R.G.
- NntpPostingHost: tom_schwengler.mrg.uswest.com
- References: <C1IKCv.KIq@newcastle.ac.uk>
- Date: 28 Jan 93 17:56:28 GMT
- Lines: 22
-
- In article <C1IKCv.KIq@newcastle.ac.uk> Gareth Suddes,
- G.M.Suddes@newcastle.ac.uk writes:
- > Something I noticed the other day.
- > Why is it we often refer to 'nothing' as a plural?
- >
- > eg 0 people 0 men
- > 1 person 1 man
- > 2 people 2 men
- > 3 people.... 3 men...
- >
- >Curiously,
- >Gareth
-
- I believe this tendency is a quite modern habit/mistake. The Latin,
- Greek, German, French and English gramar have usually associated absence
- and singular; that is why noone and nobody are singular.
- Also one should say no man, one man, two men...
- Nevertheless, I agree with you when it comes to 0 man/men, I am tempted
- to use men, even though I think it would be gramatically inapropriate.
- Can anyone help me on this one ?
-
- Tom
-