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- From: regeorge@magnus.acs.ohio-state.edu (Robert E George)
- Subject: Re: probability = 0
- Message-ID: <1993Jan5.185747.26295@magnus.acs.ohio-state.edu>
- Sender: news@magnus.acs.ohio-state.edu
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- Organization: The Ohio State University
- References: <9301051655.AA22441@aplpy.jhuapl.edu>
- Date: Tue, 5 Jan 1993 18:57:47 GMT
- Lines: 32
-
- In article <9301051655.AA22441@aplpy.jhuapl.edu> louis@aplpy.jhuapl.edu (Louis
- Vasquez) writes:
- >Hello,
- > My friend and I got in a debate about the probability of
- >something happening. The event was that another friend of ours
- >could win the superbowl. Not that he would play on a winning team
- >in the superbowl but that he would win it.
- [deletions to save space]
- > His arguments (although I must admit I probably don't fully
- >understand them) are that by definition a single person cannot win
- >the superbowl. And the case that I gave is a finite case in an
- >infinite number of possible cases and therefore the probability is
- >n devided by infinity, a limit which approaches zero. Therefore he
- >says there is a probability of exactly zero that this will happen.
- > Anyone care to comment?
- > Lou,
- > louis@aplpy.jhuapl.edu
- >
-
- Consider a random variable with a Poisson distribution. There are
- infinitely many possible realizations of the r.v. -- 0,1,2,3,4 , . . .
- By the above argument,each of those realizations would have probability
- zero, which is of course incorrect.
-
- A very big part of the problem is that there are (at least) two
- infinities, one countable and the other uncountable. The idea of probability
- is very much tied up with that of integration -- consult an analysis or
- introductory probability textbook.
-
- Robert George
- The Ohio State University Statistics Department
- (speaking only for myself)
-