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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Path: sparky!uunet!stanford.edu!CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU!Sunburn.Stanford.EDU!pratt
- From: pratt@Sunburn.Stanford.EDU (Vaughan R. Pratt)
- Subject: Re: need proof: (1 + 1/n)^n ==> e
- Message-ID: <1992Dec16.213439.25125@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU>
- Sender: news@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU
- Organization: Computer Science Department, Stanford University.
- References: <1glt0lINNquc@news.aero.org> <1992Dec16.013418.11120@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU> <1992Dec16.130923.1537@magnus.acs.ohio-state.edu>
- Date: Wed, 16 Dec 1992 21:34:39 GMT
- Lines: 17
-
- In article <1992Dec16.130923.1537@magnus.acs.ohio-state.edu> gedgar@magnus.acs.ohio-state.edu (Gerald A Edgar) writes:
- >In article <1992Dec16.013418.11120@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU> pratt@Sunburn.Stanford.EDU (Vaughan R. Pratt) writes:
- >
- >>d/dx (1+x/n)^n = (1+x/n)^{n-1} = n/(n+x) (1+x/n)^n.
- >>
- >>So as n -> oo, this function tends to a fixpoint of d/dx, and is 1 at
- >>x=0, hence must be exp(x). Now set x=1.
- >
- >What are you claiming? If f_n(x) and g_n(x) are two sequences of
- >real functions, d/dx f_n(x) = g_n(x) for each n,
- >f_n(x) converges to f(x) for each x, and g_n(x) converges to g(x)
- >for each x, then d/dx f(x) = g(x) ??
-
- Yes, with the additional hypothesis f_n(x)/g_n(x) = 1 + O(x/n). Do you
- have a counterexample?
- --
- Vaughan Pratt Interactive Proofs = Polynomial Space
-