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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Path: sparky!uunet!stanford.edu!CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU!Sunburn.Stanford.EDU!pratt
- From: pratt@Sunburn.Stanford.EDU (Vaughan R. Pratt)
- Subject: Re: need proof: (1 + 1/n)^n ==> e
- Message-ID: <1992Dec16.013418.11120@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU>
- Sender: news@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU
- Organization: Computer Science Department, Stanford University.
- References: <1glr2qINN2vg@usenet.INS.CWRU.Edu> <1glt0lINNquc@news.aero.org>
- Date: Wed, 16 Dec 1992 01:34:18 GMT
- Lines: 19
-
- In article <1glt0lINNquc@news.aero.org> doner@Aero.org (John Doner) writes:
- >In article <1glr2qINN2vg@usenet.INS.CWRU.Edu>, fau@po.CWRU.Edu (Francis A. Uy) writes:
- >|>
- >|> I can't believe I forgot the proof of this one.
- >|> Subject line says it all.
- >
- >First tell us what you want to use for a definition of e.
-
- Indeed. Easiest would be to just take that limit for the definition.
-
- One can also define e to be exp(1) where exp(x) is that fixpoint of
- d/dx satisfying exp(0)=1. In that case
-
- d/dx (1+x/n)^n = (1+x/n)^{n-1} = n/(n+x) (1+x/n)^n.
-
- So as n -> oo, this function tends to a fixpoint of d/dx, and is 1 at
- x=0, hence must be exp(x). Now set x=1.
- --
- Vaughan Pratt There's safety in certain numbers.
-