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- From: martin@lyra.cis.umassd.edu (Gary Martin)
- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: Need some help with Topology
- Message-ID: <MARTIN.92Dec12154345@lyra.cis.umassd.edu>
- Date: 12 Dec 92 20:43:45 GMT
- References: <1gc73iINNl4g@matt.ksu.ksu.edu>
- Sender: usenet@umassd.edu (USENET News System)
- Organization: University of Massachusetts Dartmouth
- Lines: 53
- In-Reply-To: bubai@matt.ksu.ksu.edu's message of 12 Dec 1992 02:15:46 -0600
-
- In article <1gc73iINNl4g@matt.ksu.ksu.edu> bubai@matt.ksu.ksu.edu (P. Chatterjee) writes:
-
- I had a few questions (none homework, though!) and would appreciate any
- kind of help from the math-knowledgeables on the net.
-
- Seems that you need to give us more background before we can answer these.
-
- a) What does it mean to say that a set A is 'infinite'? 'Finiteness', by
- definition, implies that A is equivalent to a portion of the set of
- positive integers. Can this definition of 'finiteness' be used to
- motivate one for 'infiniteness'?
-
- Do you have some precise meaning in mind when you say "portion"?
- Let's say it means {1,2,3,...,n} for some n, ok? Now you've got
- a definition of "finiteness". This, or any other definition of
- "finite" can be formally negated to get a corresponding definition
- of "infinite". A set is "infinite" if it is not equivalent to any
- set {1,2,3,...,n} for a natural number n. (I suppose we should
- mention the empty set, too, but that's just a nit to pick.)
-
- b) Show that A is OPEN <==> X \ A is closed.
- Isn't this a definition or can it be proven?
-
- This depends on what definitions you are using. You can say that the
- topology is given by specifying its open sets, and then define
- "closed" to mean "open complement". Then yes, it's a definition.
- Or you can (again giving the topology by specifying the open sets)
- define A to be closed if every point in X\A has an open neighborhood
- disjoint from A. Then you can prove that "open" is equivalent to
- "closed complement". Etc.
-
- c) If A is infinite and p in A, show that A \ {p} is equivalent to A.
-
- You need to choose a definition of "infinite" before attempting this.
- One possible definition, which would make the proof easy, is to
- say A is infinite iff for some p in A, A\{p} is equiv. to A.
- Another is to use the definition I suggested in (a). Another
- is to say A is infinite if there is a one-to-one map of the
- natural numbers into A (in which case the proof is again easy).
- Another is to say A is infinite if there is a map from A onto
- the natural numbers.
-
- d) Show that (A')' is a subset of A'.
-
- What does A' mean?
-
-
-
-
- Thanks for all the help.
- --
- Gary A. Martin, Assistant Professor of Mathematics, UMass Dartmouth
- Martin@cis.umassd.edu
-