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- Newsgroups: rec.games.bridge
- Path: sparky!uunet!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!wupost!eclnews!spot!geppo
- From: geppo@spot.wustl.edu (Giuseppe Bianchi)
- Subject: Re: Which inference is better, WAS - "finesse or play for the drop"
- Message-ID: <1992Nov20.204325.10401@wuecl.wustl.edu>
- Sender: usenet@wuecl.wustl.edu (News Administrator)
- Nntp-Posting-Host: spot
- Organization: Washington University, St. Louis MO
- References: <BxwHCq.55K@irvine.com> <1ee8ukINN8ij@agate.berkeley.edu> <By11xy.GE6@irvine.com>
- Date: Fri, 20 Nov 1992 20:43:25 GMT
- Lines: 78
-
- In article <By11xy.GE6@irvine.com> adam@irvine.com (Adam Beneschan) writes:
- >
- >Didn't some researcher just determine recently that if you shuffle the
- >cards 7 times (I think), that the result will be close to a perfect
- >random shuffle? I remember reading something about this but I don't
- >recall the details. Perhaps someone out there who's familiar with
- >this study can enlighten me.
- >
-
- I make a public response because maybe that someone else than Adam is
- interested.
- The number of shuffle required for a deck of n cards is
- k, where k is the smallest exponent that satisfies the rule
- k
- 2 >= n
-
- Thus in the case of 52 cards, k=6. (*** not 7 ***)
- This is a well known (old) result mainly used in interconnection network
- theory.
-
-
-
- How to explain this? suppose, for simplicity, a deck of exactly 64 cards
- (the case of 52 can be included - with some work - in this).
-
- At every shuffle, you suppose to operate a PERFECT SHUFFLE permutation,
- that is, divide exactly the deck in two parts, and the i-th card of every
- sub-deck (starting the numeration with 0) is supposed to have equal
- probability to go in one of the two position 2*i, 2*i+1 of the shuffled
- deck.
- For an example, with 8 cards (A, B, ...H), after a shuffle the possible
- deck distributions are (A,E),(B,F),(C,G),(D,H), where every pair can be
- taken in both orders.
-
-
-
- Going a little bit further, given an initial card of this 64 card deck
- in the position (in binary representation, for simplicity)
- abcdef (a...f = 0 or 1)
- it is easy to see that, after a perfect shuffle, the next position of this
- card is
- bcdefx
- with x 0 or 1 with equal probability.
- After a second shuffle, the next position will be
- cdefxx
- and so on up to the 6th shuffle, where a card starting form a given
- position can be found in any else position.
- [with 52 cards, this algorithm must be adapted, and loses the simplicity
- of binary representation]
-
-
-
- some examples:
- 1) if you start with an ace as a first card, after the next shuffle it will
- be equally likely in 1th or 2nd pos, after the second shuffle in one of the
- first four, and so on.
-
- 2) If the ace is the third card of the dech, after the first shuffle it will
- be 5th or 6th, after the second in 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th, and so on with
- the given permutation rule.
-
-
-
-
- OF COURSE THIS IS THE THEORY!!!!! In reality a hand made shuffle is
- FAR to represent a perfect shuffle permutation (clustering, uneven deck
- split, etc).
- Thus the minimum number of shuffle must be raised to a certain value
- depending on the type of pseudo-shuffle permutation used (who knows
- what is this permutation for a hand shuffle??!!)
-
-
-
- BTW: returning to the shuffle generators, a valid and low computational
- cost shuffle algorithm can be built using 6 runs of perfect shuffle.
-
- Giuseppe.
-
-