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- From: adam@irvine.com (Adam Beneschan)
- Newsgroups: rec.games.bridge
- Subject: Re: Which inference is better, WAS - "finesse or play for the drop"
- Message-ID: <BxwHCq.55K@irvine.com>
- Date: 18 Nov 92 07:12:25 GMT
- References: <1992Nov16.143024.5460@athena.mit.edu> <lgfm84INNk2u@cypress.cs.utexas.edu> <1992Nov16.131237.19210@ms.uky.edu> <lsimonse.722011812@vipunen.hut.fi>
- Sender: usenet@irvine.com (News Administration)
- Organization: Irvine Compiler Corp., Irvine, California, USA
- Lines: 32
- In-Reply-To: lsimonse@vipunen.hut.fi's message of 17 Nov 92 14:50:12 GMT
-
- In article <lsimonse.722011812@vipunen.hut.fi> lsimonse@vipunen.hut.fi
- (Kenneth Simonsen) writes:
-
- > Easly Blackwood (I think) came with the following rule: If your shortest suit
- > is divided 3-1 or worse (I mean 3-1, 4-0, 2-1, 2-0, 1-1 or 1-0) then finesse.
- >
- > In all other situations play for the drop.
- >
- > This of course when there are no other indications. It was tested on many
- > givs, and with a remarcable result.
-
- Mathematically, this makes no sense at all. Look at these two hands:
-
- (1) (2)
- Dummy --> KJ63 A76 A53 A65 | KJ63 A76 A3 A765
- You --> AT742 K42 4 8742 | AT742 K42 54 842
-
- Your side has the exact same 26 cards on both hands, and so do the
- opponents. The distributional probabilities of the opponents' 26
- cards will be exactly the same in both cases; in no way does it
- depend on how your side's 26 cards are divided. So whatever is the
- best play on hand (1) (in the absence of other information) must also
- be the best play on hand (2). Yet the "Symmetry Principle", as I
- believe this is called, says you should finesse with hand (1) and play
- for the drop with hand (2).
-
- I really have to dispute the validity of any test that confirms this
- principle.
-
- -- Adam
-
-
-