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- From: djvelleman@amherst.edu
- Subject: Re: You know, the integers (was: Re: Stupid question about FLT)
- Message-ID: <1992Jul22.094640.1@amherst.edu>
- Lines: 28
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- Organization: Amherst College, Amherst Mass.
- References: <1992Jul20.173716.6310@galois.mit.edu> <29444.Jul2020.17.2692@virtualnews.nyu.edu> <1992Jul21.034140.10920@galois.mit.edu> <9601.Jul2112.44.3692@virtualnews.nyu.edu>
- Date: Wed, 22 Jul 1992 13:46:40 GMT
-
- In article <9601.Jul2112.44.3692@virtualnews.nyu.edu>, brnstnd@nyu.edu (Dan Bernstein) writes:
- > In article <1992Jul21.034140.10920@galois.mit.edu> tycchow@riesz.mit.edu (Timothy Y. Chow) writes:
- >> But wait a second, someone will say. Why can't we just take the syntactic
- >> entities of ZFC to BE our sets? We just DEFINE a set to be a syntactic
- >> entity of ZFC. Won't this solve our problems? We don't have to worry about
- >> MODELS of ZFC, which we don't even know exist. We DO have the syntactic
- >> entities, so why not just take those to be our sets. Then math will be
- >> reduced to syntax as per plan.
- >
- > Since that is exactly what mathematicians have always done and will
- > always continue to do, what are you worried about?
-
- This is not *at all* what mathematicians have always done. If you took the
- syntactic objects to be the sets, then since there are only countably many
- syntactic objects, there would only be countably many sets.
-
- Mathematical *reasoning* can be accurately represented syntactically--that's
- basically what the completeness theorem says. But that's quite different
- from saying that the *objects* of mathematics are syntactic.
-
- You could argue that mathematicians should take their objects to be
- syntactic. But that would be quite a change from the way mathematicians
- ordinarily do things.
-
- Dan Velleman
- Dept. of Mathematics & Computer Science
- Amherst College
-
-