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- From: jgk@osc.COM (Joe Keane)
- Newsgroups: sci.lang
- Subject: Re: what has happened to "ascribe" ?
- Keywords: number, contraction
- Message-ID: <5689@osc.COM>
- Date: 28 Jul 92 05:29:47 GMT
- References: <92204.135724GRV101@psuvm.psu.edu> <1992Jul24.032652.15096@bnr.ca> <RMUGELE.92Jul24082955@oasun1.oracle.com>
- Reply-To: Joe Keane <jgk@osc.com>
- Organization: Versant Object Technology, Menlo Park, CA
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- In article <RMUGELE.92Jul24082955@oasun1.oracle.com> rmugele@oracle.com
- (Robert Mugele) writes:
- >I tend to agree with this last comment. It seems to me that "there is"
- >and "there are" are moving toward an idomatic usage where they merge and
- >number is no longer significant. I see this as analagous to the Spanish
- >word "hay" which has the meanings "there is" and "there are".
-
- I have a sort of alternative theory that "there's" has become an acceptable
- contraction for "there are", most likely because "there're" is awkward to
- pronounce and easily confused with "their" or "they're". So i wonder how much
- people who use "there's" with plural objects would also use "there is" in the
- same place, or whether most of them would switch to "there are" if they're not
- using the contraction.
-
- In any case, it is an idiomatic format, and there's no reason to assume that
- the verb must agree in number with the object (or do you call it the subject).
- I'd have a hard time believing that "there" is a noun.
-
- --
- Joe Keane, amateur linguist
- jgk@osc.com (uunet!amdcad!osc!jgk)
-