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CUL:"The Error of the JESUS ONLY Doctrine"
by Jimmy Swaggart
Here again we have a body of believers who are good, upstanding,
well-motivated people. It might well be asked, "If they are Christians
and want to do what's right, how can they go so far wrong in their
doctrine?" The answer, of course, is that even the best motivated of
hearts can stumble when the head leads it down an errant path. I
believe their motivation is right, while their performance is in error.
Should we chance divisiveness by discussing the doctrinal
misconceptions they promote? While I shun argument for the sake of
argument, I feel in this case we should. This is not a simple matter of
"to each his own." The Word of God is given to us to be our staff
against the world, our strength, and our guide to proper doctrine. The
Word tells us to rightly divide the Word (II Timothy 3:16).
God gave us His Word so we could, through study and application,
develop sound doctrine. Admittedly, all fall short of complete
knowledge of God's intent for us in this day. I believe God
deliberately left some fine points obscured so we would\have\to study
His Word as an ongoing and perpetual component of our Christian life. I
do feel, however, that there is a difference between freedom to search
out God's meaning from His Word, and license to promote doctrines which
are barely suggested within the Word.
ORIGIN
The "New Issue" erupted within the Pentecostal movement about 1914.
While it started as a friendly debate over the question of the correct
method for water baptism, it quickly developed into a fierce
controversy over the nature of the Godhead. The argument in those early
days was basically over the effort to reconcile the words of the Lord
in Matthew 28:19 and Peter's words in Acts 2:38. Suddenly the thing
exploded. Those who practiced baptism in the name of Jesus Christ
(Jesus Only) claimed a special revelation from the Lord which would
result in the correct manner of water baptism. And, you might ask, what
was this tremendous, tradition-defying revelation?
In effect it was this: Peter introduced the new baptismal method at
Pentecost because, supposedly, the Holy Ghost had revealed unto him
that the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost is
Jesus Christ. In other words, their "revelation" was that there is only
one person in the Godhead and that is Jesus Christ. They also
vehemently opposed the doctrine of the Trinity, claiming it was of
human origin.
The argument became more heated, the controversy more explosive, and
the split grew wider.
1. THREE GODS OR ONE?
We teach there is one God manifest in three persons: God the Father,
God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost. The Jesus Only people teach that
Christ is the Father, He is the Son and He is the Holy Ghost. Hence the
name, Jesus Only. I believe we can provide proper evidence from the
Word of God that this is not the case and that the teaching advanced by
these people is erroneous and does not accord proper due and honor to
the Godhead.
The Scripture does state there is one God. But the word "one"
relates to unity as well as number. I John 5:7 clearly means one in
unity, as does St. John 17:11-21. And yet there are three distinct
persons: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. The three are spoken
of as one in number and yet treated individually in Scripture. There is
one God the Father, one Lord Jesus Christ, and one Holy Ghost (I
Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 4:3-6). Thus there are three separate
persons in divine individuality and divine plurality. The Father is
called God (I Corinthians 8:6), the Son is called God (Isaiah 9:6-7;
Hebrews 1:8; John 1:1-2) and the Holy Spirit is called God (Acts 5:3-
4). Individually, each is called God; collectively, they can be spoken
of as one God because of their perfect unity. The word "God" can be
used either in the singular or in the plural, like sheep. Everything
that could pertain to God collectively could also apply equally to each
member of the Godhead as individuals. However, there are some
particulars which relate to each individual person of the deity as to
position, office, and work that could not be attributed to either of
the other members of the Godhead. For instance, the Father is the head
of Christ (I Corinthians 11:3). The Son is the only begotten of the
Father (II John 1:3). The Holy Ghost proceeds from both the Father and
the Son (John 14:16; Acts 2:3-4).
ELOHIM
The names of God prove plurality of persons. The Hebrew word Elohim,
translated "God" in Genesis 1:1 and also in more than 2,700 other
places in the Old Testament, is a uniplural noun which means "more than
one." Had the sacred writer been led to use the singular El, then there
would have been no indication of a divine plurality. But in this
initial reference to God, he was led of the Holy Ghost to pen the Word
Elohim (Genesis 1:1). Also when one considers that the word Elohim is
used about ten to one over the word El, we would have to conclude that
this preference for the plural over the singular indicates a definite
sign of plurality in the Godhead.
PLURALITY IN SCRIPTURES
Genesis 3:22, where it says, "the man has become as one of us,"
proves plurality of persons by the use of the pronoun "us." Two Lords
are mentioned in Genesis 19:24--one on earth and one in heaven. Two
Lords sit side by side in Psalms 110:1-5, in Matthew 22:44, and in Acts
2:33-34, 36. Two and three Persons are mentioned in the introductions
to many New Testament books: Romans, James, I Corinthians, I Peter, to
name a few.
JESUS IS NOT THE FATHER
Only one Scripture in the Word of God states that Jesus is the
Father. This is found in Isaiah, chapter 9, and it is a Hebrew idiom
concerning the terminology of the Jews. And we know from the Word of
God that while Jesus was on earth the Father was in heaven (Matthew
5:16-48). We also know (from Scripture) that Christ now sits at the
right hand of the Father. Jesus said He would confess men before His
Father which was in heaven, proving He (Jesus) is not Himself the
Father (Matthew 10:32; Revelation 3:5). Jesus always prayed to the
Father as a separate person (Matthew 11:25). Both Jesus and Satan refer
to God apart from Jesus (Matthew 4:6-10). Jesus was the only begotten
Son of the Father. Hence, Jesus could not be the Father, nor could He
beget Himself (John 1:14). Over 80 times in the Word f God Jesus
affirmed that He was not the Father, nor was He the only person in the
Godhead.
Admittedly, we do not understand everything about the Trinity.
However, it does become somewhat less confusing and mysterious if we
don't try to force two or more separate Persons into becoming only one
Person, simply because we choose not to recognize that the true meaning
of the word "one" actually refers to unity. So what we have is, only
one Scripture (easily explained) in the Old Testament stating that
Jesus is the Father, and so very, very many confirming that He is not
the Father.
THE HOLY SPIRIT IS NOT JESUS OR THE FATHER
The Holy Spirit is another and He is from both the Father and the
Son (John 5:32). So that the Holy Spirit could come, it was necessary
that Jesus go away (John 16:5-15). Even then, though, He could not be
sent from God until Christ was glorified. But at that time He would be
sent from both the Father and the Son (John 7:37-39). The Holy Spirit
was sent from the Father to endue Jesus with power. This clearly
requires three persons--the One who sent Him, and the One being sent,
and the One who received Him!
A clear distinction is made between the Son who prays, the Father to
whom He prays, and the Holy Spirit for whom (which) He prays (John
14:16).
The descent of the Holy Spirit acknowledged the arrival of Jesus in
heaven to sit at the right hand of God, thus proving three separate and
distinct persons (Acts 2:33-34; John 7:39).
So, what do we have? Jesus is God; the Holy Ghost is God; the Father
is God. But Jesus is not the Holy Spirit; Jesus is not the Father. And
neither is the Father the Lord Jesus Christ; nor is the Father the Holy
Spirit.
The scriptural passages which provide the basis for the Trinitarian
doctrine cannot be reconciled to the Jesus Only position without
totally disregarding the meaning of language and without totally
ignoring many contrary Scriptures. On the other hand, the favorite
Jesus Only passages can be reconciled without strain or contradiction
to the Trinitarian position.
2. THE FORMULA FOR WATER BAPTISM (Matthew 28:19; Acts 2:38)
The Trinitarians baptize according to Matthew 28:19, using the words
of the Lord Jesus Christ where He said that we should baptize in the
name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. We do this
for many reasons, and I will go into many of the details concerning the
differences between the two baptismal formulas.
The Jesus Only people affirm that the Matthew 28:19 method is not
once found in the book of Acts and was unknown in the early church, but
was introduced centuries later by apostates in total disregard of
apostolic practice. Trinitarians are, therefore, admonished to conform
to the scriptural pattern and to follow the example of those who had
the true "revelation" of the name.
The Jesus Only people claim that the words Father and Son do not
constitute names. We maintain they do. We believe that Matthew 28:19
definitely confirms that "Father" is a name, that "Son" is a name, that
"Holy Ghost" is a name, simply because we are not generalizing just any
father or just any son. We are talking about God the Father, and God
the Son; and most anyone in Christendom today would readily recognize
and know Who is being spoken of.
In Isaiah 9:6 the Bible says His name shall be called Wonderful,
Counselor, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace.
Each one of these appellations would be labeled a title by Jesus Only
interpreters, but Isaiah's text calls each one a name. This is also the
one verse of Scripture in the entirety of God's Word where Jesus Christ
is called the Father; and still, somehow, these people are blinded to
the fact that the verse actually disproves their theory concerning
titles and names, simply because it gives the name of "Father" to Jesus.
So I simply ask a question. According to Isaiah, isn't "Wonderful" a
name? Isn't "Prince of Peace" a name? Isaiah uses five different names
here and yet, under divine inspiration, he specifically chose the
singular when he said, "And His name shall be called...." So what more
needs to be said in answer to this strange insistence that if "Father,
Son, and Holy Ghost" are names (plural), then Matthew 28:19 should read
in the names of? The writers, under divine inspiration, used the
singular instead of the plural. They did it for a divine reason.
THE BOOK OF ACTS AND THE BAPTISMAL FORMULA
There is not a single incident in the book of Acts where any
particular baptismal method is given. There is no record of the
dialogue of the baptizer while standing in the water with the convert.
You can look in vain for any Scripture which would state, "I baptize
thee in the name of Jesus Christ" (or any other variation of the
precious name of our Lord). If one could produce such an explicit
procedure, I would be thrilled to admit that we have a scriptural right
to baptize thus, but it cannot be produced. It doesn't exist.
This immeasurably weakens the Jesus Only position. They have read
into the record that which is not there. They have taken the words of
Peter, assumed that they were the properly expressed formula, and
placed them onto the lips of those who baptized in water--without a
shred of evidence to support their action. The Jesus Only proponents
claim that Acts 2:38 is the baptismal formula. And yet Acts 8:16 and
Acts 19:5 simply state they were baptized in the name of the Lord
Jesus. And if you will notice, in these two latter verses the word
"Christ" was omitted altogether.
If Peter, on the day of Pentecost, received a baptism "revelation"
which the Jesus Only proponents claim is "in the name of Jesus Christ,"
why, we ask, is this later variation produced? You see, there is no
fixed wording to follow, and there is no regular or prescribed usage of
certain words. So the question has to be asked, should we baptize in
the name of Jesus Christ, or in Christ Jesus, or in the Lord, or in the
Lord Jesus, or in the Lord Jesus Christ? Which would be correct? Was
Peter right? Or Philip? Or Paul?
Jesus Only exponents say they are sticklers (fanatics) for the exact
words of Scripture, and that they use the identical words of the
apostles; yet their demands are not accompanied by quotations from
God's Word of the words themselves. Even in those passages where their
purported words are found, their full formula is lacking. One of their
chief proponents some years ago stated that the following formula
should be used: "I baptize you in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ,
which is the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy
Ghost." When this particular brother was asked to cite chapter and
verse for this formula, he was speechless. Apparently it had not ever
occurred to him that the formula he had conjured up had no scriptural
connotation whatsoever.
So the question still must be asked. Which is the right way to
baptize and what was the meaning of Peter's or Paul's words in the book
of Acts?
There is no way one can take the passages in the book of Acts to be
intended as a baptismal formula. The words should be regarded as a
compendious description of the entire rite. In Acts 2:38, 8:16, 10:48,
and 19:15, the details of the baptismal ceremony are not set forth.
What is set forth is a condensed, brief, abridged reference to the
sacred experience. The words describe the sphere, the foundation or
ground of baptism, rather than the prescribed words of the formula.
Every Trinitarian using the Matthew 28:19 formula refers to water
baptism as "Christian baptism" and this is as it should be, for Christ
is assuredly the central figure in water baptism. Jesus Christ is the
One who died and rose again; not the Father and not the Holy Ghost. It
is into His death that we are symbolically buried, and in the likeness
of His resurrection we are raised to walk in newness of life;
therefore, belief in, and confession of, the Lord Jesus Christ, is a
central part of our baptismal ceremony.
THIS IS THE REASON WE ACCEPT THE MATTHEW 28:19 BAPTISMAL FORMULA
A. Both the minister and the believer render obedience to the
Master's own explicit command whenever the words are used, "in the name
of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost."
B. Matthew 28:19 fits the definition of a formula. It is an orderly
statement of faith or doctrine. It is the prescribed words of a
ceremony or rite. The words of the Lord Himself are all contained in
one concise declaration. It is not necessary, as in the Jesus Only
formula, to combine it with other Scriptures in order to get the
complete name. It is complete within itself.
C. Matthew 28:19 incorporates an orderly statement of faith. It
summarizes the scattered and unsystemized thought and language of the
entire New Testament concerning the nature of the Godhead. He who spoke
these words desired their use as the formula, for they were purposely
designed to set forth the doctrine of the Trinity in this initiatory
Christian rite. The Master's own baptism by John was a vivid precedent
for associating the Trinity with baptism. Jesus was there in person.
God spoke from heaven and the Holy Spirit descended like a dove upon
Him.
D. Matthew 28:19 is the only command in the entire Bible given
specifically to those performing the rite of baptism. If you will
examine all the passages in Acts dealing with baptism, you will
discover that the commands there are to the believers themselves and
not to the baptizer, or the minister. Matthew 28:19 is a direct order
to those who administer the ordinance informing them to baptize "in the
name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost."
E. It is unthinkable that the disciples disobeyed the express
command of their Lord. The only logical and scriptural conclusion is
that the apostles and other leaders not only obeyed His command to
baptize but also obeyed His command to "baptize in the name of the
Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost."
F. The Matthew 28:19 baptismal formula is abundantly confirmed by
the earliest Christian writings while the Jesus Only formula has no
historical support at all. Justin's first apology was written in A.D.
153 about ninety years after the death of Peter and Paul. It was about
sixty years after the death of John the apostle. Justin was a
contemporary of Polycarp, who was a disciple of John himself, and he
stated that Matthew 28:19 was the correct formula.
There is another book called The Teaching of the Twelve Apostles and
it is the oldest book outside the New Testament. It is also known as
the Didache and is dated by most authorities between the years A.D. 70
and 100. Although the author of the book is unknown, it is a
compilation of the teachings of the apostles which he had apparently
learned either by personal instruction, oral tradition, or through
their (the apostles') own writings or other New Testament writings then
in circulation. While it does not possess the inspiration of the
Scriptures, the Didache is an authentic record of primitive
Christianity. It includes as instructions for baptizing that we ought
to baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy
Ghost, and also that we ought to baptize in running or living water.
There again, the Matthew 28:19 formula is used. And, lest we forget, I
would remind you that there is not a single recorded incident in the
Bible or any other genuine first-century book where any other formula
was ever used in the first one hundred years of the Christian era.
G. Matthew 28:19 can be used as the formula and the baptism still be
in the name of Jesus Christ because the Son is Jesus Christ. Jesus
Christ is the sphere, the foundation, and the ground for Trinitarian
baptism. Belief in, and confession of, Christ is the very heart of our
baptism. Consequently, the words spoken by most ministers of the
Gospel, baptizing according th Matthew 28:19, follow this pattern: "On
the confession of your faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, I baptize you in
the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost."