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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: Question on real numbers
- Message-ID: <1992Oct9.024318.21085@massey.ac.nz>
- From: news@massey.ac.nz (USENET News System)
- Date: Fri, 9 Oct 92 02:43:18 GMT
- References: <1992Oct8.211117.19295@rz.uni-karlsruhe.de> <1992Oct8.233240.11257@wdl.loral.com>
- Organization: Massey University
- Lines: 24
-
- In article <1992Oct8.233240.11257@wdl.loral.com>, mab@wdl39.wdl.loral.com (Mark A Biggar) writes:
- >
- > In article <1992Oct8.211117.19295@rz.uni-karlsruhe.de> vhansen@ipfs.bau-verm.uni-karlsruhe.de (Wolfgang von Hansen) writes:
- > >is it possible to express any real number x with the following term
- > >
- > >My idea is to write any real number as a pair of rational numbers
- >
- > No you can't do this. The set of all pairs of rationals (a,b) in only
- > countably infinite, therefore the set {a+rb} is countable, But the set
- > R in uncountably infinite, therefore R != {a+rb}. As a counter example
- >
- >
- This is true, but it is possible to find an analogy of sorts.
- The set of ordered pairs of reals forms a 2 dimensional vector space
- over the reals. The reals can be thought of as an infinite dimensional
- vector space over the rationals.
-
- See Angus E Taylor, "Introduction to Functional Analysis"
- Wiley (1958), p44, where he defines the concept of a Hamel basis.
-
- Unfortunately, you need the axiom of choice to prove the existence
- of such a basis.
-
- Terry Moore
-