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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: Looking for a slick proof
- Message-ID: <1992Oct7.195233.16373@massey.ac.nz>
- From: news@massey.ac.nz (USENET News System)
- Date: Wed, 7 Oct 92 19:52:33 GMT
- References: <1aterkINNj4f@matt.ksu.ksu.edu> <hunt.718423655@shy.umd.edu> <Bvr85r.26E@watdragon.uwaterloo.ca>
- Organization: Massey University
- Lines: 23
-
- In article <Bvr85r.26E@watdragon.uwaterloo.ca>, deghare@daisy.uwaterloo.ca (Dave Hare) writes:
- >
- > In article <hunt.718423655@shy.umd.edu> hunt@shy.umd.edu (Brian Hunt) writes:
- > >bubai@matt.ksu.ksu.edu (P.Chatterjee) writes:
- > >>How does one prove that 2^n divides n*(n+1)*(n+2)*......*(2n) without
- > >>having to resort to the 'odd' and 'even' induction? Any ideas?
- > >
- > >In fact 2^n divides (n+1)(n+2)...(2n), and it's the largest power of 2
- > >to do so.
-
- This can be done by an ordinary induction. I'll prove more, that for
- prime p, p^n | f(n) = (n+1)(n+2)...(pn) and is the largest power of p
- to do so.
-
- Clearly true for n=0.
- Now f(n+1) = f(n)(pn+1)(pn+2)...(pn+p)/(n+1) = pf(n)(pn+1)(pn+2)...(pn+p-1)
- and p divides none of the factors after f(n).
-
- Exercise, what happens if p is not prime?
- Clearly, divisibility by p^n still holds, but
- what is the highest power of p which works?
-
- Terry Moore
-