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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Path: sparky!uunet!secapl!Cookie!frank
- From: frank@Cookie.secapl.com (Frank Adams)
- Subject: Re: measures of the `size' of infinite sets
- Message-ID: <1992Sep11.175829.79520@Cookie.secapl.com>
- Date: Fri, 11 Sep 1992 17:58:29 GMT
- References: <1992Sep8.134624.11005@newstand.syr.edu> <1992Sep9.042345.7472@galois.mit.edu> <1992Sep9.062701.8487@galois.mit.edu>
- Organization: Security APL, Inc.
- Lines: 16
-
- In article <1992Sep9.062701.8487@galois.mit.edu> jbaez@riesz.mit.edu (John C. Baez) writes:
- >In article <1992Sep9.042345.7472@galois.mit.edu> jbaez@riesz.mit.edu (John C. Baez) writes:
- >
- >> But for your problem the best answer involves not measure
- >>but "density". Given a set of integers, we calculate its density as
- >>follows. Figure out how many integers in your set lie between -n and n
- >>- say that m do. Take the ratio n/2m ... this just tells us what
- >>fraction of the integers between -n and n lie in your set. Now take the
- >>limit as n goes to infinity! If the limit exists and equals d (some
- >>number between 0 and 1), we say your set has density d.
- >
- >Okay, I got that one messed up all right. Take the ratio m/(2n+1),
- >since there are 2n+1 integers between -n and n, counting the endpoints.
-
- Since you're taking the limit as n goes to infinity, it doesn't really
- matter. The limit is always exactly the same either way.
-