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- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Path: sparky!uunet!brunix!brunix!dzk
- From: dzk@cs.brown.edu (Danny Keren)
- Subject: Re: Partitioning of uncountable sets
- Message-ID: <1992Sep8.191012.5000@cs.brown.edu>
- Sender: news@cs.brown.edu
- Organization: Brown University Department of Computer Science
- References: <1992Sep8.182706.90039@vaxc.cc.monash.edu.au>
- Date: Tue, 8 Sep 1992 19:10:12 GMT
- Lines: 18
-
- kevin@vaxc.cc.monash.edu.au writes:
-
- #A proof that every uncountable set can be partioned into two uncountable
- #sets.
- #Let X be an uncountable set. Consider the set of ordered pairs, (x,0),(x,1)
- #where x is in X. Call this set Y. Then Y is also uncountable, moreover,
- #{(x,0) with x in X}=Y(0) and {(x,1) with x in X}=Y(1) are both uncountable.
- #But the cardinaltiy of X is the cardinality of Y. Thus, there is a bijection
- #f from Y to X. f(Y(0)) and f(Y(1)) form the desired partition of X.
- #The proof is of course easier if one assumes A.C, which I have avoided.
-
- Don't you need the axiom of choice to show that for any infinite
- cardinality x, x+x=x?
-
- -Danny Keren.
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