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- From: gore@pepper.rutgers.edu (Bittu)
- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: n doesnt divide 2^n-1
- Message-ID: <Sep.7.13.02.21.1992.5036@pepper.rutgers.edu>
- Date: 7 Sep 92 17:02:22 GMT
- References: <1992Aug28.194350.19717@cs.rose-hulman.edu> <1992Aug28.203144.13773@super.org> <Sep.3.16.29.43.1992.1193@yoko.rutgers.edu> <1992Sep4.152548.2904@super.org>
- Organization: Hill Center
- Lines: 24
-
- In article <1992Sep4.152548.2904@super.org> kedlaya@metropolis.super.org (Kiran Sridhara Kedlaya) writes:
-
- > Mea culpa. I forgot to mention that 2^phi(n) - 1 is divisible by n, and phi(n)
- > is less than n, so d is at most phi(n), so it's less than n.
- >
-
- So we have at least two different proofs that 2^n is not congruent to
- 1 (mod n) for n > 1. While working on this problem I noticed a few
- things that are interesting. Since I still don't have any proofs, my
- observations are best summed up in the following conjecture:
-
- Conj: For n >= 1, let 2^n = a.n + b where 0 <= b < n so that a is the
- quotient and b the remainder. Then the following hold:
-
- 1. b is always even.
- 2. (even stronger) b is always a power of 2.
- 3. a is always even.
-
- Note that 1 implies that n doesn't divide 2^n - 1 for n > 1. 2 gives
- us a slightly stronger theorem though I don't know how to say it. I
- don't know what 3 implies. My question is: Is any of the three
- statements true?
-
- --Bittu
-