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- From: mab@wdl39.wdl.loral.com (Mark A Biggar)
- Newsgroups: sci.crypt
- Subject: Math Induction (was Re: tabulation of primes)
- Message-ID: <1992Aug12.213221.8240@wdl.loral.com>
- Date: 12 Aug 92 21:32:21 GMT
- References: <1992Aug12.152948.39350@news.th-darmstadt.de> <1992Aug12.171656.8755@tessi.com> <1992Aug12.194603.23527@news.th-darmstadt.de>
- Sender: news@wdl.loral.com
- Organization: Loral Western Development Labs
- Lines: 19
-
- I have seen two different definitions of induction:
-
- method 1
- prove p(0)
- prove (p(0) & p(1) & ... & p(n)) -> p(n+1)
- therefore p(x) holds for all positive integers
-
- method 2
- prove p(0)
- prove p(n) -> p(n+1)
- therefore p(X) holds etc.
-
- Are these of equal strength, in other words can I prove some things with 1
- that I can't prove with just 2? Which of these is equivalent to the last
- peano axiom?
-
- --
- Mark Biggar
- mab@wdl1.wdl.loral.com
-