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- From: bath@dw3f.ess.harris.com (Kenneth Bath)
- Subject: Re: RE: Why is it?
- References: <9301210600.AA23021@enet-gw.pa.dec.com>
- Date: Mon, 25 Jan 1993 01:40:21 GMT
- Nntp-Posting-Host: dw3sk.ess.harris.com
- Reply-To: bath@dw3f.ess.harris.com (Kenneth Bath)
- Organization: Harris Semiconductor, Melbourne FL
- Sender: news@mlb.semi.harris.com
- Message-ID: <1993Jan25.014021.23725@mlb.semi.harris.com>
- Lines: 20
-
- |>
- |>>3. In the Liturgy of the Hours, is an "(alleluia)" to be excluded during
- |>>Lent, or added during Eastertime?
- |>
- |>If Latin usage is like Anglican usage, this depends on the antiphon. Some
- |>use alleluia only during Eastertide; some are optional (but really should
- |>be used during Eastertide) except must be omitted during Lent.
- |>
-
- I still don't understand when the "alleluia" is optional. For example, the
- Hours are introduced with the doxology, "Glory to the Father and to the
- Son and to the Holy Spirit, as it was in the beginning, is now, and will
- be forever. (alleluia)". Is this "alleluia" excluded during Lent, or added
- during Eastertime? (In other words, do we say the alleluia during
- Ordinary Time or Advent?) I could cite other examples where the
- "alleluia" is in "( )".
-
- Again... not an earth shaking problem; I'm just curious about the notation.
-
- Ken Bath
-