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- Newsgroups: alt.politics.libertarian
- Path: sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!uwm.edu!linac!uchinews!news
- From: sals@florimel.uchicago.edu (red-head fancier)
- Subject: Re: [misc.activism.progressive] Clinton Office Requests Comments
- Message-ID: <1993Jan21.062537.6986@midway.uchicago.edu>
- Sender: news@uchinews.uchicago.edu (News System)
- Organization: University of Chicago Computing Organizations
- References: <1993Jan21.025019.255@midway.uchicago.edu>
- Date: Thu, 21 Jan 1993 06:25:37 GMT
- Lines: 19
-
- In article <1993Jan21.025019.255@midway.uchicago.edu>
- sals@florimel.uchicago.edu (red-head fancier) writes:
- > Let's look at this from a mathematical perspective. Let f be a map from
- > A, what rights derive from, to the set of individual rights, let's call
- it
- > B. Let g be a map from B to C, the rights of groups. Examine f composed
- on
- > g and you have the rights of groups derived from the same basis as
- > individual rights, yet if x, some right, is not an element of B, the set
- > of individual rights in not an element of g(X) the set of group rights.
- > This is a compostion, but no fallacy.
- Oops!!! In my haste to write this I omitted two crucial phrases. F and g
- are 1-1 and onto maps. And it should read x .... is not mapped to an
- element of g(x). My apologies.... But now there is no fallacy of
- composition. BTW Mr. Heuben did change the meaning of my original sentence
- by saying if an individual doesn't have a right then a group doesn't. Note
- I said derived from not equivalent to. So a better sentence would be a
- group has a right iff the right is a combination of individual rights. And
- incidently how was my use of derive a fallacy, ?r. Heuben?
-