NetNews Usenet Archive 1992 #31/NN_1992_31.iso/spool/soc/women/22009

Internet Message Format | 1993-01-01 | 1.8 KB

Xref: sparky soc.women:22009 soc.men:21988 alt.feminism:6700 talk.abortion:53821
Path: sparky!uunet!olivea!spool.mu.edu!yale.edu!nigel.msen.com!heifetz!rotag!kevin
From: [e-mail] (Kevin Darcy)
Newsgroups: soc.women,soc.men,alt.feminism,talk.abortion
Subject: Re: Parallel situations
Message-ID: <[e-mail]>
Date: 1 Jan 93 01:59:55 GMT
References: <[e-mail]> <[e-mail]> <[e-mail]>
Organization: Who, me???
Lines: 28

In article <[e-mail]> [e-mail] (Mark A. Cochran) writes:
>>> Kevin Darcy
>> Larry Margolis
>
>>>Similarly, there is no formal "billing" of pregnancy/child-support costs
>>>until a child is born, and the paternity award is made, but that doesn't mean
>>>the charges aren't INCURRED before the child is born.
>>
>>The charges are incurred by the woman whether or not a child results; the
>>man is only obligated to pay a portion of those charges if a child results
>>and a paternity award is made.  If no child results, then there is no
>>paternity award, and therefore no financial obligation for the man even
>>though charges were incurred by the woman.
>>
>Minor quibble, just to keep the facts straight...
>Kevin, the OB types I know all have charges which are paid by the
>pregnant woman as pre-natal care is administered. Even those with
>insurance have deductables, co-payments etc. So there most certainly
>*is* formal billing of pregnancy costs before any child is born.

The issue at hand is whether the man incurs paternity child support liability
at the point he has sexual intercourse, or later, after the child is born, and
the paternity award is made.

What you contributed, Mark, while perhaps true, is irrelevant to the issue at
hand.

                                - Kevin