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- Xref: sparky soc.motss:48114 talk.politics.misc:60646 ca.politics:9633
- Path: sparky!uunet!portal!kadath!hico2!kak
- From: kak@hico2.westmark.com (Kris A. Kugel)
- Newsgroups: soc.motss,talk.politics.misc,ca.politics
- Subject: no obvious logic error [Re: How Many Homosexuals?]
- Message-ID: <BxuBE0.JDt@hico2.westmark.com>
- Date: Tue, 17 Nov 1992 03:08:21 GMT
- References: <13122@optilink.UUCP>
- Reply-To: kak2@hico2.westmark.com
- Organization: High Country Software
- X-Newsreader: Tin 1.1 PL5
- Lines: 129
-
- Mark Walsh (walsh@optilink.UUCP) wrote:
- : From article <1992Nov9.004823.3211@u.washington.edu>, by tzs@carson.u.washington.edu (Tim Smith):
- : > One approach to estimating this would be to find some way to calculate it
- : > based on other estimated factors. For example, 9% of men over 65 are
- : > either single or divorced. Assuming that by the time one reaches 65,
- : > even gay men who got married before they realized that they were gay
- : > are likely to be divorced, this would put an upper limit of 9% on
- : > the percentage of gay people over 65.
- :
- : Talk about a skewed sample. You are making the remarkable
- : assumption that the percentage of gays over 65 is the same
- : as the percentage of those under 65. A smoking survey that
- : I recently read showed that gay men are far more likely to
- : smoke cigarettes than straight men. This factor alone would
- : significantly alter the number of gay men who make it to 65.
- : There are too many other variables to list.
- : --
- : Mark Walsh (walsh@optilink) -- UUCP: uunet!optilink!walsh
-
- Having not been following this discussion, I can see that
- walsh@optilink.UUCP may have actually been remarking on how
- the group over 65 may not represent the percentage of gay men
- in the U.S. male population as a whole. I agree with this.
-
- But I disagree that tzs@carson.u.washington.edu's logic for
- the over 65 males group is invalid.
- As an upper bound within the population described,
- *using the following strict definition of "gay"*
- the logic sounds good to me:
-
- 1. males with strongly enough male-male sexual preference
- to discontinue heterosexual marriages by age 65 are considered "gay".
-
- 2. By this definition, those who are still married at age 65 cannot be "gay".
-
- 3. because the unmarried/over 65 male population is 9%,
- the maximum of (unmarried gay male > 65 ) + (unmarried non-gay male > 65)
- must be less than or equal to 9%.
-
- Note the following:
- If the definition is incorrect, the arguement fails.
- The arguement only holds for the over 65 group.
-
- so no, this particular arguement doesn't deal well
- with the population under 65, and therefore with the population
- as a whole.
-
- If you use the above assumptions, and you add in the male
- mortality rate, and you make the addition assumption that
- nobody switches sexual preference from male-male only to male-female,
- you still can determine an upper bounds for the percentage
- of "gays" in the population who were born 65 or more years ago.
- To do this, you *still* have to have a tight definition of "gay".
-
- So I think tzs@carson.u.washington.edu's logic shows promise.
- I also think that the process of evaluating it would make sure
- that we are using a common terminology in discussing this.
- (for example if instead we allow the definination of "gay"
- to include those who remain married after age 65, and ignore
- the situation of "married but not sexually active within the marriage",
- then what will differentiate gay from bisexual?)
- Subject: logic error [Re: How Many Homosexuals?]
- Newsgroups: soc.motss,talk.politics.misc,ca.politics
- References: <13122@optilink.UUCP>
- Organization: High Country Software
- Reply-To: kak2@hico2.westmark.com
- X-Newsreader: Tin 1.1 PL5
-
- Mark Walsh (walsh@optilink.UUCP) wrote:
- : From article <1992Nov9.004823.3211@u.washington.edu>, by tzs@carson.u.washington.edu (Tim Smith):
- : > One approach to estimating this would be to find some way to calculate it
- : > based on other estimated factors. For example, 9% of men over 65 are
- : > either single or divorced. Assuming that by the time one reaches 65,
- : > even gay men who got married before they realized that they were gay
- : > are likely to be divorced, this would put an upper limit of 9% on
- : > the percentage of gay people over 65.
- :
- : Talk about a skewed sample. You are making the remarkable
- : assumption that the percentage of gays over 65 is the same
- : as the percentage of those under 65. A smoking survey that
- : I recently read showed that gay men are far more likely to
- : smoke cigarettes than straight men. This factor alone would
- : significantly alter the number of gay men who make it to 65.
- : There are too many other variables to list.
- : --
- : Mark Walsh (walsh@optilink) -- UUCP: uunet!optilink!walsh
-
- Having not been following this discussion, I can see that
- walsh@optilink.UUCP may have actually been remarking on how
- the group over 65 may not represent the percentage of gay men
- in the U.S. male population as a whole. I agree with this.
-
- But I disagree that tzs@carson.u.washington.edu's logic for
- the over 65 males group is invalid.
- As an upper bound within the population described,
- *using the following strict definition of "gay"*
- the logic sounds good to me:
-
- 1. males with strongly enough male-male sexual preference
- to discontinue heterosexual marriages by age 65 are considered "gay".
-
- 2. By this definition, those who are still married at age 65 cannot be "gay".
-
- 3. because the unmarried/over 65 male population is 9%,
- the maximum of (unmarried gay male > 65 ) + (unmarried non-gay male > 65)
- must be less than or equal to 9%.
-
- Note the following:
- If the definition is incorrect, the arguement fails.
- The arguement only holds for the over 65 group.
-
- so no, this particular arguement doesn't deal well
- with the population under 65, and therefore with the population
- as a whole.
-
- If you use the above assumptions, and you add in the male
- mortality rate, and you make the addition assumption that
- nobody switches sexual preference from male-male only to male-female,
- you still can determine an upper bounds for the percentage
- of "gays" in the population who were born 65 or more years ago.
- To do this, you *still* have to have a tight definition of "gay".
-
- So I think tzs@carson.u.washington.edu's logic shows promise.
- I also think that the process of evaluating it would make sure
- that we are using a common terminology in discussing this.
- (for example if instead we allow the definination of "gay"
- to include those who remain married after age 65, and ignore
- the situation of "married but not sexually active within the marriage",
- then what will differentiate gay from bisexual?)
-