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- Newsgroups: soc.culture.british
- Path: sparky!uunet!pipex!warwick!pavo.csi.cam.ac.uk!ag129
- From: ag129@cus.cam.ac.uk (Alasdair Grant)
- Subject: Re: Accent and Dialect, the politics there
- Message-ID: <1992Nov20.135117.7997@infodev.cam.ac.uk>
- Sender: news@infodev.cam.ac.uk (USENET news)
- Nntp-Posting-Host: bootes.cus.cam.ac.uk
- Organization: U of Cambridge, England
- References: <1992Nov19.144846.15747@gssec.bt.co.uk> <1992Nov19.215337.5379@infodev.cam.ac.uk> <CC.92Nov20113809@arran.dcs.ed.ac.uk>
- Date: Fri, 20 Nov 1992 13:51:17 GMT
- Lines: 15
-
- In article <CC.92Nov20113809@arran.dcs.ed.ac.uk> cc@dcs.ed.ac.uk (Chris Cooke) writes:
- >He didn't mean, of course, "a brand of modern-day English English". Nobody
- >disputes that Scots, ne Inglis, is an Anglo-Saxon language. What is in
- >dispute is whether it's a branch of modern English or whether it's
- >independently descended from old Anglo-Saxon "English", a rather different
- >language. Those in the know seem to prefer the latter theory, I've heard.
-
- So your argument rests entirely on the date at which the Scottish dialects
- (which you treat as a single entity) somehow 'separated' from the English
- dialects? I.e. that in 1300 the languages spoken in Devonshire and
- Northumbria were the same, while that spoken in Edinburgh was different?
- What date do you think this separation took place?
-
- By the way, do you claim that American and Jamaican English are not dialects
- of English, but languages in their own right?
-