home *** CD-ROM | disk | FTP | other *** search
- Path: sparky!uunet!haven.umd.edu!darwin.sura.net!mips!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!uakari.primate.wisc.edu!ames!agate!agate!matt
- From: matt@physics2.berkeley.edu (Matt Austern)
- Newsgroups: sci.physics
- Subject: Re: Converting the masses
- Message-ID: <MATT.92Jul25134956@physics2.berkeley.edu>
- Date: 25 Jul 92 18:49:56 GMT
- References: <9868@sun13.scri.fsu.edu> <1992Jul22.193837.18095@sfu.ca>
- <131163@lll-winken.LLNL.GOV> <1992Jul25.194550.1970@smsc.sony.com>
- Reply-To: matt@physics.berkeley.edu
- Organization: Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory (Theoretical Physics Group)
- Lines: 42
- NNTP-Posting-Host: physics2.berkeley.edu
- In-reply-to: markc@smsc.sony.com's message of 25 Jul 92 19:45:50 GMT
-
- In article <1992Jul25.194550.1970@smsc.sony.com> markc@smsc.sony.com (Mark Corscadden) writes:
-
- > It's perfectly reasonable to talk about the mass of a
- > macroscopic object. The inertial mass of the object
- > can be operationally defined in terms of the force
- > that has to be applied to the object to produce a given
- > rate of acceleration. Methods exist which allow you to
- > measure the mass of an object, so defined, with great
- > precision.
-
- This is true: in Newtonian mechanics, the acceleration of an object is
- proportional to the force applied on it, and the constant of
- proportionality is its mass. That is,
- \vec{F} = m \vec{a}. (1)
- Sorry about the TeX notation, but it really is necessary for the point
- I wish to make, which is that this is a vectorial equation: the
- acceleration really is proportional to the force, because it is in the
- same direction.
-
- This is a Newtonian equation, however, and it is not valid for a
- relativistic object, no matter how "m" is defined. For a relativistic
- body, the force and the acceleration are *not* proportional. The
- acceleration is not in the same direction as the force. In other
- words: there is no such thing as an inertial mass in relativistic
- physics, so there is no point in trying to define "mass" so as to
- preserve this Newtonian concept. (Note that the "m" in Eq. (1) is
- numerically equal to the "rest mass" and to the "relativistic mass";
- for a nonrelativistic system, the two are equal.)
-
- As I said earlier, this fact was known even before Einstein; folks
- used to talk about two different "inertial masses," one for forces
- parallel to an object's velocity, and one for forces perpendicular to
- it. They gave up this particular silliness rather quickly, though,
- and just decided that Eq. (1) did not apply to relativistic systems.
-
-
- --
- Matthew Austern I dreamt I was being followed by a roving band of
- (510) 644-2618 of young Republicans, all wearing the same suit,
- matt@physics.berkeley.edu taunting me and shouting, "Politically correct
- austern@theorm.lbl.gov multiculturist scum!"... They were going to make
- austern@lbl.bitnet me kiss Jesse Helms's picture when I woke up.
-