OS/2 Shareware BBS: 8 Other/08-Other.zip/TECHSTUD.ZIP/POOL3A.TXT

Text File | 1991-02-20 | 102KB | 3,415 lines

3AA 1.1   A
What is the CONTROL POINT of an amateur station?

 A. The location at which the control operator function is performed
 B. The operating position of any amateur station operating as a
    repeater user station
 C. The physical location of any Amateur Radio transmitter, even if it is
    operated by radio link from some other location
 D. The variable frequency oscillator (VFO) of the transmitter


3AA 1.2   B
What is the term for the location at which the control operator function is
performed?

 A. The operating desk
 B. The control point
 C. The station location
 D. The manual control location


3AA 2.1   B
What are the HF privileges authorized to a Technician class control operator in
ITU Region 2?

 A. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when station
    location is outside Region 2), 14,100 to 14,150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,150, and
    28,100 to 28,500 kHz only
 B. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when station location
    is outside Region 2), 21,100 to 21,200 kHz, and 28,100 to 28,500 kHz only
 C. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
 D. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 when station location is
    outside Region 2), 21,100 to 21,200 kHz only


3AA 2.2   C
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced only
 B. Extra, Advanced, General only
 C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
 D. Extra, Advanced, Technician, Novice


3AA 2.3   B
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only
 D. Extra, Advanced only


3AA 2.4   A
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only
 D. Extra, Advanced only


3AA 2.5   B
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only
 D. Extra, Advanced only


3AA 3.1   A
How often do amateur licenses generally need to be renewed?

 A. Every 10 years
 B. Every 5 years
 C. Every 2 years
 D. They are lifetime licenses


3AA 3.2   A
The FCC currently issues amateur licenses carrying 10-year terms. What is the
"grace period" during which the FCC will renew an expired 10-year license?

 A. 2 years
 B. 5 years
 C. 10 years
 D. There is no grace period


3AA 3.3   A
What action would you take to modify your operator/primary station license?

 A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in Gettysburg, PA
 B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest FCC field office
 C. Write the FCC at their nearest field office
 D. There is no need to modify an amateur license between renewals


3AA 4.1   B
On what frequencies within the 6-meter wavelength band may FM phone emissions
be transmitted?

 A. 50.0-54.0 MHz only
 B. 50.1-54.0 MHz only
 C. 51.0-54.0 MHz only
 D. 52.0-54.0 MHz only


3AA 4.2   A
On what frequencies within the 2-meter wavelength band may FM image emissions
be transmitted?

 A. 144.1-148.0 MHz only
 B. 146.0-148.0 MHz only
 C. 144.0-148.0 MHz only
 D. 146.0-147.0 MHz only


3AA 4.3   A
What emission type may always be used for station identification, regardless
of the transmitting frequency?

 A. CW
 B. RTTY
 C. MCW
 D. Phone


3AA 5.1   D
If you are using a frequency within a band designated to the amateur service
on a secondary basis and another station assigned to a primary service on
that band causes interference, what action should you take?

 A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
 B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
 C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
 D. Change frequencies; you may also be causing interference to the other
    station and that would be a violation of FCC rules


3AA 5.2   C
What is the basic principle of frequency sharing between two stations
allocated to a primary service within a frequency band, each in a different
ITU Region or Subregion?

 A. The station with a control operator holding a lesser class of license
    must yield the frequency to the station with a control operator holding
    a higher class of license
 B. The station with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the
    station with a higher output power
 C. Both stations have an equal right to operate on the frequency
 D. Stations in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations
    in ITU Region 2


3AA 5.3   D
What must the control operator do while a third-party is participating in
radiocommunications?

 A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph license, no
    supervision is necessary
 B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the transmitting
    frequency on another receiver, to insure that no interference is taking
    place
 C. If a radio control link is available, the control operator may leave
    the room
 D. The control operator must continuously monitor and supervise the
    radiocommunication to insure compliance with the rules


3AA 6.1.1  C
FCC Rules specify the maximum transmitter power that you may use with your
amateur station. At what point in your station is the transmitter power
measured?

 A. By measuring the final amplifier supply voltage inside the transmitter
    or amplifier
 B. By measuring the final amplifier supply current inside the transmitter
    or amplifier
 C. At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier
 D. On the antenna itself, after the feed line


3AA 6.1.2   D
What is the term used to define the average power supplied to the antenna
transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the modulation envelope?

 A. Peek transmitter power
 B. Peak output power
 C. Average radio-frequency power
 D. Peak envelope power


3AA 6.2.1   C
Notwithstanding the numerical limits of the FCC Rules, how much transmitting
power shall be used by an amateur station?

 A. There is no regulation other than the numerical limits
 B. The minimum power required to achieve S9 signal reports
 C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication
 D. The maximum power available, so long as it is under the legal limit


3AA 6.3.1    D
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
146.52 MHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output
 B. 500 watts ERP
 C. 1000 watts DC input
 D. 1500 watts PEP output


3AA 6.4.1    B
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in
beacon operation?

 A. 10 watts PEP output
 B. 100 watts PEP output
 C. 500 watts PEP output
 D. 1500 watts PEP output


3AA 7.1.1   C
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY transmission between
28 and 50 MHz

 A. 56 kilobauds
 B. 19.6 kilobauds
 C. 1200 bauds
 D. 300 bauds


3AA 7.1.2   B
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY transmission between
50 and 220 MHz?

 A. 56 kilobauds
 B. 19.6 kilobauds
 C. 1200 bauds
 D. 300 bauds


3AA 7.1.3   D
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY transmission above
220 MHz?

 A. 300 bauds
 B. 1200 bauds
 C. 19.6 kilobauds
 D. 56 kilobauds


3AA 7.2.1   C
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY when transmitted
below 50 MHz?

 A. 100 Hz
 B. 500 Hz
 C. 1000 Hz
 D. 5000 Hz


3AA 7.2.2   C
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY when transmitted
above 50 MHz?

 A. 100 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
 B. 500 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
 C. The FCC Rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift above 50 MHz
 D. 5000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater


3AA 7.3.1   A
What is the authorized bandwidth of a RTTY, data or multiplexed emission
using a specified digital code within the frequency range of 50 to 220 MHz?

 A. 20 kHz
 B. 50 kHz
 C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband emission
 D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission


3AA 7.3.2   D
What is the authorized bandwidth of a RTTY, data or multiplexed emission
using an unspecified digital code within the frequency range of 250 to 450 MHz?

 A. 50 kHz
 B. 150 kHz
 C. 200 kHz
 D. 100 kHz


3AA 7.3.3   D
What is the authorized bandwidth of a RTTY, data or multiplexed emission
using an unspecified digital code within the 420 to 450 MHz amateur band?

 A. 50 kHz
 B. 200 kHz
 C. 300 kHz
 D. 100 kHz


3AA 8.1.1   B
How must the control operator who has a Novice license and a Certificate of
Successful Completion of Examination for Technician privileges identify the
station when transmitting on 146.34 MHz?

 A. The new Technician may not operate on 146.34 until his or her new license
    arrives
 B. The licensee gives his or her call sign, followed by any suitable word
    that identifies the slant mark and the identifier "KT"
 C. No special form of identification is needed
 D. The licensee gives his or her call sign followed and states the location
    of the VE examination where he of she obtained the certificate of
    successful completion


3AA 8.2.1   B
Which language(s) must be used when making the station identification by
telephony?

 A. The language being used for the contact may be used if it is not English,
    providing the US has a third-party traffic agreement with that country
 B. English must be used for identification
 C. Any language may be used, if the country which uses that language is a
    member of the International Telecommunication Union
 D. The language being used for the contact must be used for identification
    purposes


3AA 8.3.1   C
What does the FCC recommend to aid correct station identification when using
phone?

 A. A speech compressor
 B. Q signals
 C. A recognized phonetic alphabet
 D. Unique words of the operator's choice


3AA 9.1.1   A
What is the term used to describe an amateur station transmitting
communications for the purpose of observation of propagation and reception
or other related experimental activities?

 A. Beacon operation
 B. Repeater operation
 C. Auxiliary operation
 D. Radio control operation


3AA 9.2.1   A
What class of amateur operator license must you hold to operate a beacon
station?

 A. Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
 B. General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
 C. Amateur Extra class only
 D. Any license class


3AA 10.1   A
What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station is permitted when
transmitting signals to control model craft?

 A. One watt
 B. One milliwatt
 C. Two watts
 D. Three watts


3AA 10.2   C
What minimum information must be indicated on the label affixed to a
transmitter transmitting signals to control a model craft?

 A. Station call sign
 B. Station call sign and operating times
 C. Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address
 D. Station call sign, class of license, and operating times


3AA 10.3   D
What are the station identification requirements of an amateur station
transmitting signals to control a model craft?

 A. Once every ten minutes and at the beginning and end of each transmission
 B. Once every ten minutes
 C. At the beginning and end of each transmission
 D. Station identification is not required provided that a label indicating
    the station call sign and the station licensee's name and address is
    affixed to the station transmitter


3AA 10.4   B
Where must the writing indicating the station call sign and the licensee's
name and address be affixed in order to operate under the special rules for
radio control of remote model craft and vehicles?

 A. It must be in the operator's possession
 B. It must be affixed to the transmitter
 C. It must be affixed to the craft or vehicle
 D. It must be filed with the nearest FCC field office


3AA 11.1.1   A
If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur
repeater and the frequency coordinator has coordinated (recommends) the
operation of one station and not the other, who is primarily responsible for
resolving the interference?

 A. The licensee of the non-coordinated (unrecommended) repeater
 B. Both repeater licensees
 C. The licensee of the coordinated (recommended) repeater
 D. The frequency coordinator


3AA 11.1.2   B
If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur
repeater and the frequency coordinator has coordinated (recommends) the
operation of both stations, who is primarily responsible for resolving the
interference?

 A. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated for the longest
    period of time
 B. Both repeater licensees
 C. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated most recently
 D. The frequency coordinator


3AA 11.1.3   A
If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur
repeater and the frequency coordinator has not coordinated the operation of
either station, who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference?

 A. Both repeater licensees
 B. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for the longest
    period of time
 C. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for the shortest
    period of time
 D. The frequency coordinator


3AA 11.2.1   D
Under what circumstances does the FCC declare a temporary state of
communication emergency?

 A. When a declaration of war is received from Congress
 B. When the maximum usable frequency goes above 28 MHz
 C. When communications facilities in Washington, DC, are disrupted
 D. When a disaster disrupts normal communications systems in a particular area


3AA 11.2.2   A
By what means should a request for a declaration of temporary state of
communication emergency be initiated?

 A. Communication with the FCC Engineer-in-Charge of the affected area
 B. Communication with the US senator or congressman for the area affected
 C. Communication with the local emergency coordinator
 D. Communication with the Chief of the FCC Private Radio Bureau


3AA 11.2.3   C
What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary state of
communication emergency be initiated?

 A. Declaration of the areas affected and of organizations authorized to use
    radio communications in the affected area
 B. Designation of amateur frequency bands for use only by amateurs
    participating in emergency communications in the affected area, and
    complete suspension of Novice operating privileges for the duration of the
    emergency
 C. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed during the
    communication emergency
 D. Suspension of amateur rules regarding station identification and business
    communication


3AA 11.2.4   A
If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area where the
amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds of transmissions are
authorized to amateur stations in such an area?

 A. Communications which are necessary to meet essential communication needs
    and facilitate relief actions
 B. Communications which allow commercial businesses to continue to operate in
    the affected area
 C. Communications for which material compensation has been paid to the amateur
    operator for delivery into the affected area
 D. Communications which are to be used for program production or newsgathering
    for broadcasting purposes


3AA 12.1   A
What is meant by the term broadcasting?

 A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public, either direct
    or relayed
 B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals emanating from any
    class of station other than amateur
 C. The transmission of any one-way radio communication, regardless of purpose
    or content
 D. Any one-way or two-way radio communication involving more than two stations


3AA 12.2   C
Which of the following is an amateur station that cannot automatically
retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations?

 A. Auxiliary station
 B. Repeater station
 C. Beacon station
 D. Space station


3AA 12.3   B
Which of the following is an amateur station that is permitted to automatically
retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations?

 A. Beacon station
 B. Space station
 C. Official bulletin station
 D. RACES station


3AA 12.4   D
What type of radio signals may be directly retransmitted by an amateur radio
station?

 A. AM radio station
 B. Police or fire department radio station
 C. NOAA weather station
 D. US Government communications between space shuttle and associated Earth
    stations with prior approval from the National Aeronautics and Space
    Administration (NASA)


3AA 12.5   C
When may US Government communications between the space shuttle and associated
Earth stations be directly retransmitted by an amateur station?

 A. After prior approval has been obtained from the FCC in Washington, DC
 B. No radio stations other than amateur may be retransmitted in the amateur
    service
 C. After prior approval has been obtained from the National Aeronautics and
    Space Administration (NASA)
 D. After prior approval has been obtained from the nearest FCC
    Engineer-in-Charge


3AA 13.1   B
What kinds of one-way communications by amateur stations are not considered
broadcasting?

 A. All types of one-way communications by amateurs are considered by the FCC
    as broadcasting
 B. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, emergency communications,
    information bulletins consisting solely of subject matter of direct
    interest to the amateur service, and telegraphy practice
 C. Only code practice transmissions conducted simultaneously on all available
    amateur bands below 30 MHz and conducted for more than 40 hours per week
    are not considered broadcasting
 D. Only actual emergency communications during a declared communications
    emergency are exempt


3AA 13.2   D
Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the
amateur service?

 A. Transmissions to remotely control a device at a distant location
 B. Transmissions to assist persons learning or improving their proficiency in
    Morse code
 C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station
 D. Transmission of music


3AA 13.3   D
What kinds of one-way information bulletins may be transmitted by amateur
stations?

 A. NOAA weather bulletins
 B. Commuter traffic reports from local radio stations
 C. Regularly scheduled announcements concerning amateur radio equipment for
    sale or trade
 D. Messages directed only to amateur operators consisting solely of subject
    matter of direct interest to the amateur service


3AA 13.4   C
What types of one-way amateur communications may be transmitted by an amateur
station?

 A. Beacon operation, radio control, practice code, retransmission of other
    services
 B. Beacon operation, radio control, transmitting an unmodulated carrier, NOAA
    weather bulletins
 C. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, information bulletins
    consisting solely of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur
    service, telegraphy practice and emergency communications
 D. Beacon operation, emergency-drill-practice transmissions, automatic
    retransmission of NOAA weather transmissions, code practice


3AA 14.1   D
What types of material compensation, if any, may be involved in third party
communications transmitted by an amateur station?

 A. Payment of an amount agreed upon by the amateur operator and the parties
    involved
 B. Assistance in maintenance of auxiliary station equipment
 C. Donation of amateur equipment to the control operator
 D. No compensation may be accepted


3AA 14.2   C
What types of business communications, if any, may be transmitted by an amateur
station on behalf of a third party?

 A. The FCC rules specifically prohibit communications with a business for any
    reason
 B. Business communications involving the sale of amateur radio equipment
 C. Communications to a business may be provided during an emergency as
    provided by the FCC rules
 D. Business communications aiding a broadcast station


3AA 14.3   D
Does the FCC allow third-party messages when communicating with amateur radio
operators in a foreign country?

 A. Third-party messages with a foreign country are only allowed on behalf of
    other amateurs.
 B. Yes, provided the third-party message involves the immediate family of one
    of the communicating amateurs
 C. Under no circumstances may US amateurs exchange third-party messages with
    an amateur in a foreign country
 D. Yes, when communicating with a person in a country with which the US shares
    a third-party agreement


3AA 15.1   A
Under what circumstances, if any, may a third party participate in radio
communications from an amateur station if the third party is ineligible to be a
control operator of one of the stations?

 A. A control operator must be present at the control point and continuously
    monitor and supervise the third party participation. Also, contacts may
    only be made with amateurs in the US and countries with which the US has a
    third-party communications agreement
 B. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communication to insure compliance with the rules only if
    contacts are made with countries with which the US has no third-party
    communications agreement
 C. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communications to insure compliance with the rules. In addition,
    the control operator must key the transmitter and make the station
    identification
 D. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communications to insure compliance with the rules. In addition,
    if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz, the control operator
    must transmit the call signs of both stations involved in the contact at
    ten minute intervals


3AA 15.2   C
Where must the control operator be situated when a third party is
participating in radio communications from an amateur station?

 A. If a radio remote control is used, the control operator may be physically
    separated from the control point, when provisions are incorporated to shut
    off the transmitter by remote control
 B. If the control operator supervises the third party until he or she is
    satisfied of the competence of the third party, the control operator may
    leave the control point
 C. The control operator must be present at the control point
 D. If the third party holds a valid radiotelegraph license issued by the FCC,
    no supervision is necessary


3AA 15.2   D
What must the control operator do while a third party is participating in
third party radio communications?

 A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph license, no
    supervision is necessary
 B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the transmitting
    frequency on another receiver, to insure that no interference is taking
    place
 C. If a radio control link is available the control operator may leave the
    room
 D. The control operator must continually monitor and supervise the third
    party's participation


3AA 15.4   B
In an exchange of international third-party communications, when is the
station identification required?

 A. Only at the beginning of the communication
 B. At the end of each exchange of communications
 C. The station identification procedure is not required during international
    third-party communications
 D. Only at the end of multiple exchanges of communications


3AA 16.1   B
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio
communications containing obscene words?

 A. Obscene words are permitted when they do not cause interference to any
    other radio communication or signal
 B. Obscene words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
 C. Obscene words are permitted when they are not transmitted through repeater
    or auxiliary stations
 D. Obscene words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs
    that they should not be used on the air


3AA 16.2   D
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio
communications containing indecent words?

 A. Indecent words are permitted when they do not cause interference to any
    other radio communication or signal
 B. Indecent words are permitted when they are not transmitted through
    repeater or auxiliary stations
 C. Indecent words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among
    amateurs that they should not be used on the air
 D. Indecent words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions


3AA 16.3   C
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio
communications containing profane words?

 A. Profane words are permitted when they are not transmitted through
    repeater or auxiliary stations
 B. Profane words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among
    amateurs that they should not be used on the air
 C. Profane words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
 D. Profane words are permitted when they do not cause interference to any
    other radio communication or signal


3AA 17.1   A
Which of the following VHF/UHF bands may not be used by earth stations for
satellite communications

 A. 6 meters
 B. 2 meters
 C. 23 centimeters
 D. 70 centimeters


3AB 1.1   A
What is the meaning of: "Your report is five seven...."?

 A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong
 B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak
 C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
 D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone


3AB 1.2   C
What is the meaning of: "Your report is three three.."?

 A. The contact is serial number thirty-three
 B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees
 C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength
 D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength


3AB 1.3   D
What is the meaning of: "Your report is five nine plus 20dB..."?

 A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
 B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher
 C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
 D. A relative signal strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater than
    strength 9


3AB 2.1.1  B
How should a contact be initiated through a station in repeater operation?

 A. Say "breaker, breaker 79."
 B. Call the desired station and then identify your own station
 C. Call "CQ" three times and identify three times
 D. Wait for a "CQ" to be called and then answer it


3AB 2.1.2.  C
Why should users of a station in repeater operation pause briefly between
transmissions?

 A. To check the SWR of the repeater
 B. To reach for pencil and paper for third party traffic
 C. To listen for any hams wanting to break in
 D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch


3AB 2.1.3   A
Why should users of a station in repeater operation keep their transmissions
short and thoughtful?

 A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using
    the repeater
 B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
 C. To give any non-hams that are listening a chance to respond
 D. To keep long distance charges down


3AB 2.1.4   D
What is the proper procedure to break into an ongoing QSO through a station in
repeater operation?

 A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling
 B. Shout, "Break, Break!" to show that you're eager to join the
    conversation
 C. Turn on your 100 watt amplifier and override whoever is talking
 D. Send your call sign during a break between transmissions


3AB 2.1.5   B
What is the purpose of repeater operation?

 A. To cut your power bill by using someone's higher power system
 B. To enable mobile and low power stations to extend their usable range
 C. To reduce your telephone bill
 D. To call the ham radio distributor 50 miles away


3AB 2.1.6   B
What is meant by "making the repeater time out"?

 A. The repeater's battery supply has run out
 B. The repeater's transmission time limit has expired during a single
    transmission
 C. The warranty on the repeater duplexer has expired
 D. The repeater is in need of repairs


3AB 2.1.7   D
During the commuter rush hours, which types of operation should relinquish the
use of the repeater?

 A. Mobile operators
 B. Low power stations
 C. Highway traffic information nets
 D. Third-party traffic nets


3AB 2.2.1   C
Why should simplex be used where possible instead of using a station in
repeater operation?

 A. Farther distances can be reached
 B. To avoid long distance toll charges
 C. To avoid tying up the repeater unnecessarily
 D. To permit the testing of the effectiveness of your antenna


3AB 2.2.2   C
When a frequency conflict arises between a simplex operation and a repeater
operation, why does good Amateur practice call for the simplex operation to
move to another frequency?

 A. The repeater's output power can be turned up to ruin the front end of
    the station in simplex operation
 B. There are more repeaters than simplex operators
 C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical
 D. Changing a repeater frequency requires the authorization of the Federal
    Communications Commission


3AB 2.3.1   D
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for stations in repeater
operation in the 2-meter wavelength band?

 A. 1 MHz
 B. 1.6 MHz
 C. 170 Hz
 D. 0.6 MHz


3AB 2.3.2   B
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for stations in repeater
operation in the 70-centimeter band?

 A. 1.6 MHz
 B. 5 MHz
 C. 600 kHz
 D. 5 kHz


3AB 2.3.3   A
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 6-meter station in
repeater operation?

 A. 1 MHz
 B. 600 kHz
 C. 1.6 MHz
 D. 20 kHz


3AB 2.3.4   C
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 1.25-meter station
    in repeater operation?

 A. 1000 kHz
 B. 600 kHz
 C. 1600 kHz
 D. 1.6 GHz


3AB 2.4.1   D
What is a REPEATER FREQUENCY COORDINATOR?

 A. Someone who coordinates the assembly of a repeater station
 B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of system to buy
 C. The club's repeater trustee
 D. A person or group that recommends frequency pairs for repeater usage


3AB 3.1   A
Why should local amateur communications be conducted on VHF and UHF
frequencies?

 A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long distance sky-wave
    communication
 B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF
 C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
 D. Because absorption is greater at VHF and UHF frequencies


3AB 3.2   B
How can on-the-air transmissions be minimized during a lengthy transmitter
testing or loading up procedure?

 A. Choose an unoccupied frequency
 B. Use a dummy antenna
 C. Use a non-resonant antenna
 D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading up procedure


3AB 3.3   C
What is the proper Q signal to use to determine whether a frequency is in use
before making a transmission?

 A. QRV?
 B. QRU?
 C. QRL?
 D. QRZ?


3AB 4.1   A
What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telephony?

 A. Transmit MAYDAY
 B. Transmit QRRR
 C. Transmit QRZ
 D. Transmit SOS


3AB 4.2   D
What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telegraphy?

 A. Transmit MAYDAY
 B. Transmit QRRR
 C. Transmit QRZ
 D. Transmit SOS


3AB 5.1.1   C
What is one requirement you must meet before you can participate in RACES
drills?

 A. You must be registered with ARRL
 B. You must be registered with a local racing organization
 C. You must be registered with the responsible civil defense organization
 D. You need not register with anyone to operate RACES


3AB 5.1.2   B
What is the maximum amount of time allowed per week for RACES drills?

 A. Eight hours
 B. One hour
 C. As many as you want
 D. Six hours, but not more than one hour per day


3AB 5.2.1   D
How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill?

 A. As emergency messages
 B. As amateur traffic
 C. As official government messages
 D. As drill or test messages


3AB 6.1.1   A
What is the term used to describe first-response communications in an
emergency situation?

 A. Tactical communications
 B. Emergency communications
 C. Formal message traffic
 D. National Traffic System messages


3AB 6.1.2   B
What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command post" or
"weather center" during an emergency?

 A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on
 B. They promote efficiency and coordination in public-service communications
    activities
 C. They are required by the FCC
 D. They promote goodwill among amateurs


3AB 6.2.1   D
What is the term used to describe messages sent into or out of a disaster area
that pertain to a person's well being?

 A. Emergency traffic
 B. Tactical traffic
 C. Formal message traffic
 D. Health and welfare traffic


3AB 6.3.1   B
Why is it important to provide a means of operating your amateur station
separate from the commercial AC power lines?

 A. So that you can take your station mobile
 B. So that you can provide communications in an emergency
 C. So that you can operate field day
 D. So that you will comply with Subpart 97.169 of the FCC Rules


3AB 6.3.2   C
Which type of antenna would be a good choice as a part of a portable HF
amateur station that could be set up in case of a communications emergency?

 A. A three-element quad
 B. A three-element Yagi
 C. A dipole
 D. A parabolic dish


3AC 1.1.1   A
What is the IONOSPHERE?

 A. That part of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and free electrons
    exist to affect radio wave propagation
 B. The boundary between two air masses of different temperature and
    humidity, along which radio waves can travel
 C. The ball that goes on the top of a mobile whip antenna
 D. That part of the atmosphere where weather takes place


3AC 1.1.2   D
What is the region of the outer atmosphere which makes long distance
radiocommunications possible as a result of bending of radio waves?

 A. Troposphere
 B. Stratosphere
 C. Magnetosphere
 D. Ionosphere


3AC 1.1.3  C
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer
atmosphere?

 A. Thermal
 B. Ionized particle
 C. Ultraviolet
 D. Microwave


3AC 1.2.1   A
Which ionospheric layer limits daytime radiocommunications in the 80-meter
wavelength band to short distances?

 A. D layer
 B. F1 layer
 C. E layer
 D. F2 layer


3AC 1.2.2   B
What is the lowest ionospheric layer?

 A. The A layer
 B. The D layer
 C. The E layer
 D. The F layer


3AC 1.3.1   B
What is the lowest region of the ionosphere that is useful for long distance
radio wave propagation?

 A. The D layer
 B. The E layer
 C. The F1 layer
 D. The F2 layer


3AC 1.4.1  D
Which layer of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance sky wave
radiocommunication?

 A. D layer
 B. E layer
 C. F1 layer
 D. F2 layer


3AC 1.4.2  B
What are the two distinct sublayers of the F layer during the daytime?

 A. Troposphere and stratosphere
 B. F1 and F2
 C. Electrostatic and electromagnetic
 D. D and E


3AC 1.4.3  D
Which two daytime ionospheric layers combine into one layer at night?

 A. E and F1
 B. D and E
 C. E1 and E2
 D. F1 and F2


3AC 2.1   D
Which layer of the ionosphere is most responsible for absorption of radio
signals during daylight hours?

 A. The E layer
 B. The F1 layer
 E. The F2 layer
 D. The D layer


3AC 2.2   B
When is ionospheric absorption most pronounced?

 A. When Tropospheric ducting occurs
 B. When radio waves enter the D Layer at low angles
 C. When radio waves travel to the F Layer
 D. When a temperature inversion occurs


3AC 2.3   A
During daylight hours, what effect does the D Layer of the ionosphere have on
80-meter radio waves?

 A. The D Layer absorbs the signals
 B. The D Layer bends the radio waves out into space
 C. The D Layer refracts the radio waves back to Earth
 D. The D Layer has little or no effect on 80 meter radio wave propagation


3AC 2.4   B
What causes IONOSPHERIC ABSORPTION of radio waves?

 A. A lack of D Layer ionization
 B. D Layer ionization
 C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E Layer
 D. Splitting of the F Layer


3AC 3.1   D
What is usually the condition of the ionosphere just before sunrise?

 A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum
 B. Ionization is at a maximum
 C. The E layer is above the F layer
 D. Ionization is at a minimum


3AC 3.2   C
At what time of day does maximum ionization of the ionosphere occur?

 A. Dusk
 B. Midnight
 C. Midday
 D. Dawn


3AC 3.3   A
Minimum ionization of the ionosphere occurs daily at what time?

 A. Shortly before dawn
 B. Just after noon
 C. Just after dusk
 D. Shortly before midnight


3AC 3.4   B
When is E layer ionization at a maximum?

 A. Dawn
 B. Midday
 C. Dusk
 D. Midnight


3AC 4.1   D
What is the highest radio frequency that will be refracted back to Earth
called?

 A. Lowest usable frequency
 B. Optimum working frequency
 C. Ultra high frequency
 D. Critical frequency


3AC 4.2   C
What causes the MAXIMUM USABLE FREQUENCY to vary?

 A. Variations in the temperature of the air at ionospheric levels
 B. Upper-atmospheric wind patterns
 C. The amount of ultraviolet and other types of radiation received from
    the Sun
 D. Presence of ducting


3AC 4.3   A
What does the term MAXIMUM USABLE FREQUENCY refer to?

 A. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach its
    destination in a single hop
 B. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach its
    destination in a single hop
 C. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to be absorbed in the
    lowest Ionospheric layer
 D. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to be absorbed in the
    lowest Ionospheric layer


3AC 5.1   C
When two stations are within each other's skip zone on the frequency being
used, what mode of propagation would it be desirable to use?

 A. Ground wave propagation
 B. Sky wave propagation
 C. Scatter-mode propagation
 D. Ionospheric ducting propagation


3AC 5.2   C
You are in contact with a distant station and are operating at a frequency
close to the maximum usable frequency. If the received signals are weak and
somewhat distorted, what type of propagation are you probably experiencing?

 A. Troposheric ducting
 B. Line-of-sight propagation
 C. Backscatter propagation
 D. Ionospheric ducting propagation


3AC 6.1   A
What is the transmission path of a wave that travels directly from the
transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna called?

 A. Line of sight
 B. The sky wave
 C. The linear wave
 D. The plane wave


3AC 6.2   B
How are VHF signals within the range of the visible horizon propagated?

 A. By sky wave
 B. By direct wave
 C. By plane wave
 D. By geometric wave


3AC 7.1   C
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?

 A. F2
 B. Ionosphere
 C. Troposphere
 D. Stratosphere


3AC 7.2   A
What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio waves?

 A. It increases the distance over which they can be transmitted
 B. It decreases the distance over which they can be transmitted
 C. It tends to garble 2-meter phone transmissions
 D. It reverses the sideband of 2-meter phone transmissions


3AC 7.3   D
What atmospheric phenomenon causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?

 A. A very low pressure area
 B. An aurora to the north
 C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station
 D. A temperature inversion


3AC 7.4   A
Tropospheric ducting occurs as a result of what phenomenon?

 A. A temperature inversion
 B. Sun spots
 C. An aurora to the north
 D. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station


3AC 7.5   B
What atmospheric phenomenon causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several
hundred miles through stable air masses over oceans?

 A. Presence of a maritime polar air mass
 B. A widespread temperature inversion
 C. An overcast of cirriform clouds
 D. Atmospheric pressure of roughly 29 inches of mercury or higher


3AC 7.6   D
In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting occur most often?

 A. LF
 B. MF
 C. HF
 D. VHF


3AD 1.1.1   C
Where should the green wire in an AC line cord be attached in a power supply?

 A. To the fuse
 B. To the "hot" side of the power switch
 C. To the chassis
 D. To the meter


3AD 1.1.2   D
Where should the black (or red) wire in a three wire line cord be attached in a
power supply?

 A. To the filter capacitor
 B. To the DC ground
 C. To the chassis
 D. To the fuse


3AD 1.1.3   B
Where should the white wire in a three wire line cord be attached in a power
supply?

 A. To the side of the transformer's primary winding that has a fuse
 B. To the side of the transformer's primary winding without a fuse
 C. To the black wire
 D. To the rectifier junction


3AD 1.1.4   B
Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a light socket made of brass,
while the other one is silver colored?

 A. To prevent galvanic action
 B. To indicate correct wiring polarity
 C. To better conduct current
 D. To reduce skin effect


3AD 1.2.1   A
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually fatal?

 A. As little as 100 milliamperes may be fatal
 B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be fatal
 C. More than 20 amperes is needed to kill a human being
 D. No amount of current will harm you. Voltages of over 2000 volts are
    always fatal, however


3AD 1.2.2   A
What is the minimum voltage considered to be dangerous to humans?

 A. 30 volts
 B. 100 volts
 C. 1000 volts
 D. 2000 volts


3AD 1.2.3   A
How much electrical current flowing through the Human Body is usually painful?

 A. As little as 50 milliamperes may be painful
 B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be painful
 C. More than 20 amperes is needed to be painful to a human being
 D. No amount of current will be painful. Voltages of over 2000 volts are
    always painful, however


3AD 1.3.1  C
Where should the main power-line switch for a high voltage power supply be
situated?

 A. Inside the cabinet, to interrupt power when the cabinet is opened
 B. On the rear panel of the high-voltage supply
 C. Where it can be seen and reached easily
 D. This supply should not be switch operated


3AD 2.1.1  B
How is a voltmeter typically connected to a circuit under test?

 A. In series with the circuit
 B. In parallel with the circuit
 C. In quadrature with the circuit
 D. In phase with the circuit


3AD 2.2.1  C
How can the range of a voltmeter be extended?

 A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
 B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
 C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
 D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter


3AD 3.1.1  A
How is a ammeter typically connected to a circuit under test?

 A. In series with the circuit
 B. In parallel with the circuit
 C. In quadrature with the circuit
 D. In phase with the circuit


3AD 3.2.1  D
How can the range of an ammeter be extended?

 A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
 B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
 C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
 D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter


3AD 4.1   D
What is a MULTIMETER?

 A. An instrument capable of reading SWR and power
 B. An instrument capable of reading resistance, capacitance and
    inductance
 C. An instrument capable of reading resistance and reactance
 D. An instrument capable of reading voltage, current and resistance


3AD 5.1.1  A
Where in the antenna transmission line should a peak-reading wattmeter be
attached to determine the transmitter power output?

 A. At the transmitter output
 B. At the antenna feedpoint
 C. One-half wavelength from the antenna feedpoint
 D. One-quarter wavelength from the transmitter output


3AD 5.1.2  C
For the most accurate readings of a transmitter output power, where should the
RF Wattmeter be inserted?

 A. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured one-quarter
    wavelength from the antenna feedpoint
 B. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured one-half
    wavelength from the antenna feedpoint
 C. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power measured at the
    transmitter antenna jack
 D. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power measured at the
    Transmatch output


3AD 5.1.3  B
At what impedance are RF wattmeters usually designed to operate?

 A. 25 Ohms
 B. 50 Ohms
 C. 100 Ohms
 D. 300 Ohms


3AD 5.1.4  A
What is a DIRECTIONAL WATTMETER?

 A. An instrument that measures forward or reflected power
 B. An instrument that measures the directional pattern of an antenna
 C. An instrument that measures the energy consumed by the transmitter
 D. An instrument that measures thermal heating in a load resistor


3AD 5.2.1  B
If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 90 watts forward power and 10 watts
reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?

 A. 10 watts
 B. 80 watts
 C. 90 watts
 D. 100 watts


3AD 5.2.2  C
If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 96 watts forward power and 4 watts
reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?

 A. 80 watts
 B. 88 watts
 C. 92 watts
 D. 100 watts


3AD 6.1   A
What is a MARKER GENERATOR?

 A. A high stability oscillator that generates a series of reference
    signals at known frequency intervals
 B. A low stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of frequencies
 C. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's location
    relative the inner and outer markers at airports
 D. A high stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can be
    varied over a wide range


3AD 6.2   D
What type of circuit is used to inject a frequency calibration signal into a
communications receiver?

 A. A product detector
 B. A receiver incremental tuning circuit
 C. A balanced modulator
 D. A crystal calibrator


3AD 6.3   A
How is a MARKER GENERATOR used?

 A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver
 B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver
 C. To test the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter
 D. To test the frequency deviation of an FM transmitter


3AD 7.1   C
What piece of test equipment produces a stable, low-level signal that can be
set to a specific frequency?

 A. A wavemeter
 B. A reflectometer
 C. A signal generator
 D. A balanced modulator


3AD 7.2  B
What is an RF signal generator commonly used for?

  A. Measuring RF signal amplitude
  B. Aligning receiver tuned circuits
  C. Adjusting the transmitter impedance-matching network
  D. Measuring transmission line impedance


3AD 8.1.1  D
What is a REFLECTOMETER?

 A. An instrument used to measure signals reflected from the ionosphere
 B. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance
 C. An instrument used to measure transmission-line impedance
 D. An instrument used to measure standing wave ratio


3AD 8.1.2  D
What is the device that can indicate an impedance mismatch in an antenna
system?

 A. A field strength meter
 B. A set of lecher wires
 C. A wavemeter
 D. A reflectometer


3AD 8.2.1  A
For best accuracy when adjusting the impedance match between an antenna and
feedline, where should the match-indicating device be inserted?

 A. At the antenna feedpoint
 B. At the transmitter
 C. At the midpoint of the feedline
 D. Anywhere along the feedline


3AD 8.2.2  C
Where should a reflectometer be inserted into a long antenna transmission line
in order to obtain the most valid standing wave ratio indication?

 A. At any quarter-wavelength interval along the transmission line
 B. At the receiver end
 C. At the antenna end
 D. At any even half-wavelength interval along the transmission line


3AD 9.1   D
When adjusting a transmitter filter circuit, what device is connected to the
transmitter output?

 A. A multimeter
 B. A set of Litz wires
 C. A receiver
 D. A dummy antenna


3AD 9.2   B
What is a DUMMY ANTENNA?

 A. An isotropic radiator
 B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter
 C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements
 D. The image of an antenna, located below ground


3AD 9.3    C
Of what material may a dummy antenna be made?

 A. A wire-wound resistor
 B. A diode and resistor combination
 C. A noninductive resistor
 D. A coil and capacitor combination


3AD 9.4   B
What station accessory is used in place of an antenna during transmitter tests
so that no signal is radiated?

 A. A Transmatch
 B. A dummy antenna
 C. A low-pass filter
 D. A decoupling resistor


3AD 9.5   A
What is the purpose of a DUMMY LOAD?

 A. To allow off-the-air transmitter testing
 B. To reduce output power for QRP operation
 C. To give comparative signal reports
 D. To allow Transmatch tuning without causing interference


3AD 9.6   A
How many watts should a dummy load for use with a 100-watt single-sideband
phone transmitter be able to dissipate?

 A. A minimum of 100 watts continuous
 B. A minimum of 141 watts continuous
 C. A minimum of 175 watts continuous
 D. A minimum of 200 watts continuous


3AD 10.1   C
What is an S-METER?

 A. A meter used to measure sideband suppression
 B. A meter used to measure spurious emissions from a transmitter
 C. A meter used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver
 D. A meter used to measure solar flux


3AD 10.2   A
A meter that is used to generate relative signal strength in a receiver is
known as what?

 A. An S-meter
 B. An RST-meter
 C. A signal deviation meter
 D. An SSB meter


3AD 11.1.1 B
Large amounts of RF energy may cause damage to body tissue, depending on the
wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other
factors. How does RF energy effect body tissue?

 A. It causes radiation poisoning
 B. It heats the tissue
 C. It cools the tissue
 D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue


3AD 11.1.2 A
Which body organ is most susceptible to damage from the heating effects of
radio frequency radiation?

 A. Eyes
 B. Hands
 C. Heart
 D. Liver


3AD 11.2.1 D
Scientists have devoted a great deal of effort to determine safe RF exposure
limits. What organization has established an RF protection guide?

 A. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
 B. The American Radio Relay League
 C. The Environmental Protection Agency
 D. The American National Standards Institute


3AD 11.2.2 B
What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide?

 A. It protects you from unscrupulous radio dealers
 B. It sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances
 C. It sets transmitter power limits
 D. It sets antenna height requirements


3AD 11.2.3 B
The American Nation Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF exposure
limits under certain circumstances. In what frequency range is the maximum
exposure level the most stringent (lowest)?

 A. 3 to 30 MHz
 B. 30 to 300 MHz
 C. 300 to 3000 MHz
 D. Above 1.5 GHz


3AD 11.2.4  D
The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF exposure
limits under certain circumstances. Why is the maximum exposure level the most
stringent (lowest) in the ranges between 30 MHz and 300 MHz?

 A. There are fewer transmitters operating in this frequency range
 B. There are more transmitters operating in this frequency range
 C. Most transmissions in this frequency range are for an extended time
 D. Human body lengths are close to whole-body resonance in that range


3AD 11.2.5  B
The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF exposure
limits under certain circumstances. What is the maximum safe power output to
the antenna terminal of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio, as set by this RF
protection guide?

 A. 125 milliwatts
 B. 7 watts
 C. 10 watts
 D. 25 watts


3AD 11.3.1  C
After you make internal tuning adjustments to your VHF power amplifier, what
should you do before you turn the amplifier on?

 A. Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling
 B. Connect a noise bridge to eliminate any interference
 C. Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place
 D. Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause any
    interference


3AE 1.1.1 D
What is meant by the term RESISTANCE?

 A. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit
    containing inductance
 B. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit
    containing capacitance
 C. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit
    containing reactance
 D. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit that
    does not contain reactance


3AE 1.2.1 A
What is an OHM?

 A. The basic unit of resistance
 B. The basic unit of capacitance
 C. The basic unit of inductance
 D. The basic unit of admittance


3AE 1.2.2 D
What is the unit measurement of Resistance?

 A. Volt
 B. Ampere
 C. Joule
 D. Ohm


3AE 1.3.1 B
Two equal-value resistors are connected in series. How does the total
resistance of this combination compare with the value of either resistor by
itself?

 A. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor
 B. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor
 C. The total resistance is the same as the value of either resistor
 D. The total resistance is the square of the value of either resistor


3AE 1.3.2 D
How does the total resistance of a string of series-connected resistors
compare to the values of the individual resistors?

 A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of all the individual
    resistors
 B. The total resistance is the square root of the sum of the individual
    resistor values
 C. The total resistance is the sum of the squares of the individual resistor
    values
 D. The total resistance is the sum of all the individual resistance values


3AE 1.4.1 B
Two equal-value resistors are connected in parallel. How does the total
resistance of this combination compare with the value of either resistor by
itself?

 A. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor
 B. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor
 C. The total resistance is the square of the value of either resistor
 D. The total resistance is the same as the value of either resistor


3AE 1.4.2 C
How does the total resistance of a string of parallel-connected resistors
compare to the values of the individual resistors?

 A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of the resistor values
 B. The total resistance is more than the highest-value resistor in the
    combination
 C. The total resistance is less than the smallest-value resistor in the
    combination
 D. The total resistance is same as the highest-value resistor in the
    combination


3AE 2.1   D
What is OHM'S LAW?

 A. A mathematical relationship between resistance, voltage and power in a
    circuit
 B. A mathematical relationship between current, resistance and power in a
    circuit
 C. A mathematical relationship between current, voltage and power in a
    circuit
 D. A mathematical relationship between resistance, current and applied
    voltage in a circuit


3AE 2.2   A
How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance
are known?

 A. I = E / R
 B. P = I x E
 C. I = R x E
 D. I = E x R


3AE 2.3   C
What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25
amperes to it?

 A. 0.02 ohms
 B. 3 ohms
 C. 48 ohms
 D. 480 ohms


3AE 2.4   D
The product of the current and what force gives the electrical power in a
circuit?

 A. Magnetomotive force
 B. Centripetal force
 C. Electrochemical force
 D. Electromotive force


3AE 2.5   B
What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt battery supplies 0.15
amperes to it?

 A. 8 Ohms
 B. 80 Ohms
 C. 100 Ohms
 D. 800 Ohms


3AE 2.6   D
When 120 Volts is measured across a 4700-ohm Resistor, how much current is
flowing through it?

 A. 39 Amperes
 B. 3.9 Amperes
 C. 0.26 Amperes
 D. 0.026 Amperes


3AE 2.7   D
When 120 Volts is measured across a 47000-ohm Resistor, how much current is
flowing through it?

 A. 392 A
 B. 39.2 A
 C. 26 mA
 D. 2.6 mA


3AE 2.8   A
When 12 Volts is measured across a 4700-ohm Resistor, approximately how much
current is flowing through it?

 A. 2.6 mA
 B. 26 mA
 C. 39.2 A
 D. 392 A


3AE 2.9  A
When 12 Volts is measured across a 47000-ohm Resistor, approximately how much
current is flowing through it?

 A. 255 uA
 B. 255 mA
 C. 3917 mA
 D. 3917 A


3AE 3.1.1 C
What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store energy
in a magnetic field?

 A. Admittance
 B. Capacitance
 C. Inductance
 D. Resistance


3AE 3.2.1  C
What is the basic unit of Inductance?

 A. Coulomb
 B. Farad
 C. Henry
 D. Ohm


3AE 3.2.2  C
What is a HENRY?

 A. The basic unit of admittance
 B. The basic unit of capacitance
 C. The basic unit of inductance
 D. The basic unit of resistance


3AE 3.2.3 B
What is a MICROHENRY?

 A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-12) Henrys
 B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-6) Henrys
 C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-3) Henrys
 D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(6) Henrys


3AE 3.2.4 C
What is a MILLIHENRY?

 A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-12) Henrys
 B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-6) Henrys
 C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-3) Henrys
 D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(6) Henrys


3AE 3.3.1 B
Two equal-value inductors are connected in series. How does the total
inductance of this combination compare with the value of either inductor by
itself?

 A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor
 B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor
 C. The total inductance is equal to the value of either inductor
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances


3AE 3.3.2 C
How does the total inductance of a string of series-connected inductors
compare to the values of the individual inductors?

 A. The total inductance is equal to the average of all the individual
    inductances
 B. The total inductance is equal to less than the value of the smallest
    inductance
 C. The total inductance is equal to the sum of all the individual inductances
 D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact inductances


3AE 3.4.1 A
Two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel. How does the total
inductance of this combination compare with the value of either inductor by
itself?

 A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor
 B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor
 C. The total inductance is equal to the square of either inductance
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances


3AE 3.4.2 B
How does the total inductance of a string of parallel-connected inductors
compare to the values of the individual inductors?

 A. The total inductance is equal to the sum of the inductances in the
    combination
 B. The total inductance is less than the smallest inductance value in the
    combination
 C. The total inductance is equal to the average of the inductances in the
    combination
 D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact inductances


3AE 4.1.1 A
What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store energy
in an electric field?

 A. Capacitance
 B. Inductance
 C. Resistance
 D. Tolerance


3AE 4.2.1  A
What is the basic unit of capacitance?

 A. Farad
 B. Ohm
 C. Volt
 D. Ampere


3AE 4.2.2  B
What is a MICROFARAD?

 A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-12)Farads
 B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-6) Farads
 C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-2) Farads
 D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(6) Farads


3AE 4.2.3  A
What is a PICOFARAD?

 A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-12) Farads
 B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-6) Farads
 C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-2) Farads
 D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(6) Farads


3AE 4.2.4 B
What is a FARAD?

 A. A basic unit of resistance
 B. A basic unit of capacitance
 C. A basic unit of inductance
 D. A basic unit of admittance


3AE 4.3.1 C
Two equal-value capacitors are connected in series. How does the total
capacitance of this combination compare with the value of either capacitor by
itself?

 A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor
 B. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either capacitor
 C. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances


3AE 4.3.2 B
How does the total capacitance of a string of series-connected capacitors
compare to the values of the individual capacitors?

 A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of all the capacitances in the
    combination
 B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of capacitance
 C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances in the
    combination
 D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact capacitances


3AE 4.4.1 A
Two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel. How does the total
capacitance of this combination compare with the value of either capacitor by
itself?

 A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor
 B. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor
 C. The total capacitance is equal to value of either capacitor
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances


3AE 4.4.2 A
How does the total capacitance of a string of parallel-connected capacitors
compare to the values of the individual capacitors?

 A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the capacitances in the
    combination
 B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value capacitance in the
    combination
 C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances in the
    combination
 D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact capacitances


3AF 1.1.1   B
What are the four common types of resistor construction?

 A. Carbon-film, metal-film, micro-film and wire-film
 B. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, metal-film and wire-wound
 C. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, electrolytic and metal-film
 D. Carbon-film, ferrite, carbon-composition and metal-film


3AF 1.2.1   D
What is the primary function of a resistor?

 A. To store an electric charge
 B. To store a magnetic field
 C. To match a high-impedance source to a low-impedance load
 D. To limit the current in an electric circuit


3AF 1.2.2   C
What is a variable resistor?

 A. A resistor that changes value when an AC voltage is applied to it
 B. A device that can transform a variable voltage into a constant voltage
 C. A resistor with a slide or contact that makes the resistance variable
 D. A resistor that changes value when it is heated


3AF 1.3.1   A
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?

 A. The value of the resistor in Ohms
 B. The resistance tolerance in percent
 C. The power rating in Watts
 D. The value of the resistor in henrys


3AF 1.3.2 B
How can a carbon resistor's electrical tolerance rating be found?

 A. By using a wavemeter
 B. By using the resistor's color code
 C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
 D. By using the Baudot code


3AF 1.3.3 B
What does the does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?

 A. The value of the resistor in ohms
 B. The resistance tolerance in percent
 C. The power rating in watts
 D. The resistor composition


3AF 1.3.4 C
When the color bands on a group of resistors indicate that they all have the
same resistance, what further information about each resistor is needed in
order to select those that have nearly equal value?

 A. The working voltage rating of each resistor
 B. The composition of each resistor
 C. The tolerance of each resistor
 D. The current rating of each resistor


3AF 1.4.1 A
Why do resistors generate heat?

 A. They convert electrical energy to heat energy
 B. They exhibit reactance
 C. Because of skin effect
 D. To produce thermionic emission


3AF 1.4.2 C
Why would a large size resistor be substituted for a smaller one of the same
resistance?

 A. To obtain better response
 B. To obtain a higher current gain
 C. To increase power dissipation capability
 D. To produce a greater parallel impedance


3AF 1.5.1 Y
What is the symbol used to represent a fixed resistor on schematic diagrams?


3AF 1.5.2 Y
What is the symbol used to represent a variable resistor on schematic diagrams?


3AF 2.1.1  D
What is an inductor core?

 A. The point at which an inductor is tapped to produce resonance
 B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer
 C. An insulating material placed between the plates of an inductor
 D. The central portion of a coil; may be made from air, iron, brass or other
    material


3AF 2.1.2 A
What are the component parts of a coil?

 A. The wire in the winding and the core material
 B. Two conductive plates and an insulating material
 C. Two or more layers of silicon material
 D. A donut-shaped iron core and a layer of insulating tape


3AF 2.1.3 D
Describe an INDUCTOR.

 A. A semiconductor in a conducting shield
 B. Two parallel conducting plates
 C. A straight wire conductor mounted inside a Faraday shield
 D. A coil of conducting wire


3AF 2.1.4 C
For radio frequency power applications, which type of Inductor has the least
amount of loss?

 A. Magnetic wire
 B. Iron core
 C. Air-core
 D. Slug-tuned


3AF 2.2.1 D
What is an inductor?

 A. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field
 B. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower voltage
 C. An electronic component that opposes DC while allowing AC to pass
 D. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field


3AF 2.2.2 C
What are the electrical properties of an inductor?

 A. An inductor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in
    voltage
 B. An inductor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in
    current
 C. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in
    current
 D. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in
    voltage


3AF 2.3.1 D
What factors determine the amount of inductance in a coil?

 A. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core and
    whether the coil is mounted horizontally of vertically
 B. The diameter of the core, the number of turns of wire used to wind the
    coil and the type of metal used in the wire
 C. The type of material used in the core, the number of turns used to wind
    the core and the frequency of the current through the coil
 D. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core, the
    length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil


3AF 2.3.2 B
What can be done to raise the inductance of a 5-microhenry air-core coil to a
5-millihenry coil of the same physical dimensions?

 A. The coil can be wound on a non-conducting tube
 B. The coil can be wound on an iron core
 C. Both ends of the coil can be brought around to form the shape of a
    doughnut, or toroid
 D. The coil must be made of a heavier-gauge wire


3AF 2.3.3 A
As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to its inductance?

 A. It increases
 B. It decreases
 C. It stays the same
 D. It becomes voltage-dependent


3AF 2.3.4 B
As a brass core is inserted in a coil, what happens to its inductance?

 A. It increases
 B. It decreases
 C. It stays the same
 D. It becomes voltage-dependent


3AF 2.4.1 Y
What is the symbol used to represent an adjustable inductor on schematic
diagrams?


3AF 2.4.2 Y
What is the symbol used to represent an iron core inductor on schematic
diagrams?


3AF 2.4.3 Y
What is the symbol used to represent an inductor wound over a toroidal core
on schematic diagrams?


3AF 3.1.1 D
What is a capacitor dielectric?

 A. The insulating material used for the plates
 B. The conducting material used between the plates
 C. The ferrite material that the plates are mounted on
 D. The insulating material between the plates


3AF 3.1.2 A
What are the component parts of a capacitor?

 A. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material between them
 B. The wire used in the winding and the core material
 C. Two or more layers of silicon material
 D. Two insulating plates with a conductive material between them


3AF 3.1.3 C
What is an ELECTROLYTIC CAPACITOR?

 A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer
 B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica
    insulation
 C. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plates through
    electrochemical action
 D. A capacitor whose value varies with applied voltage


3AF 3.1.4 C
What is a PAPER CAPACITOR?

 A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer
 B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica
    insulation
 C. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a layer of paper
 D. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plate through
    electrochemical action


3AF 3.2.1 B
What is a capacitor?

 A. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field
 B. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field
 C. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower voltage
 D. An electronic component that converts power into heat


3AF 3.2.2 D
What are the electrical properties of a capacitor?

 A. A capacitor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in
    current
 B. A capacitor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in
    current
 C. A capacitor stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change in
    voltage
 D. A capacitor stores a charge electrostacically and opposes a change in
    voltage


3AF 3.2.3 A
What factors must be considered when selecting a capacitor for a circuit?

 A. Type of capacitor, capacitance and voltage rating
 B. Type of capacitor, capacitance and the kilowatt-hour rating
 C. The amount of capacitance, the temperature coefficient and the KVA
    rating
 D. The type of capacitor, the microscopy coefficient and the temperature
    coefficient


3AF 3.2.4 B
How are the characteristics of a capacitor usually specified?

 A. In volts and amperes
 B. In microfarads and volts
 C. In ohms and watts
 D. In millihenrys and amperes


3AF 3.3.1 A
What factors determine the amount of capacitance in a capacitor?

 A. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the area of
    one side of one plate, the separation between the plates and the number of
    plates
 B. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the number of
    plates and the diameter of the leads connected to the plates
 C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the
    dielectric material is N type or P type
 D. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the number of
    plates and the type of material used for the protective coating


3AF 3.3.2 B
As the plate area of a capacitor increases, what happens to its capacitance?

 A. Decreases
 B. Increases
 C. Stays the same
 D. Becomes voltage dependent


3AF 3.3.3 D
As the plate spacing of a capacitor is increased, what happens to its
capacitance?

 A. Increases
 B. Stays the same
 C. Becomes voltage dependent
 D. Decreases


3AF 3.4.1 Y
What is the symbol used to represent an electrolytic capacitor on schematic
diagrams?


3AF 3.4.2 Y
What is the symbol used to represent a variable capacitor on schematic
diagrams?


3AG 1.1.1 A
Which frequencies are attenuated by a Low Pass Filter?

 A. Those above its cut-off frequency
 B. Those within its cut-off frequency
 C. Within 50 kHz on either side of its cut-off frequency
 D. Those below its cut-off frequency


3AG 1.1.2 D
What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency and blocks
electrical energy above that frequency?

 A. A band-pass filter
 B. A high-pass filter
 C. An input Filter
 D. A low-pass filter


3AG 1.2.1 C
Why does virtually every modern transmitter have a built-in low-pass filter
connected to its output?

 A. To attenuate frequencies below its cutoff point
 B. To attenuate low frequency interference to other amateurs
 C. To attenuate excess harmonic radiation
 D. To attenuate excess fundamental radiation


3AG 1.2.2 B
You believe that excess harmonic radiation from your transmitter is causing
interference to your television receiver. What is one possible solution for
this problem?

 A. Install a low-pass filter on the television receiver
 B. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter output
 C. Install a high-pass filter on the transmitter output
 D. Install a band-pass filter on the television receiver


3AG 2.1.1 B
What circuit passes electrical energy above a certain frequency and attenuates
electrical energy below that frequency?

 A. A band-pass filter
 B. A high-pass filter
 C. An input filter
 D. A low-pass filter


3AG 2.2.1 A
Where is the proper place to install a high-pass filter?

 A. At the antenna terminals of a television receiver
 B. Between a transmitter and a Transmatch
 C. Between a Transmatch and the transmission line
 D. On a transmitting antenna


3AG 2.2.2 B
Your Amateur Radio transmissions cause interference to your television
receiver even though you have installed a low-pass filter at the transmitter
output. What is one possible solution for this problem?

 A. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter terminals
 B. Install a high-pass filter at the television antenna terminals
 C. Install a low-pass filter at the television antenna terminals also
 D. Install a band-pass filter at the television antenna terminals


3AG 3.1.1 A
What circuit attenuates electrical energy above a certain frequency and below a
lower frequency?

 A. A band-pass filter
 B. A high-pass filter
 C. An input filter
 D. A low-pass filter


3AG 3.1.2 D
What general range of RF energy does a band-pass filter reject?

 A. All frequencies above a specified frequency
 B. All frequencies below a specified frequency
 C. All frequencies above the upper limit of the band in question
 D. All frequencies above a specified frequency and below a lower specified
    frequency


3AG 3.2.1 A
The IF stage of a communications receiver uses a filter with a peak response
at the intermediate frequency. What term describes this filter response?

 A. A band-pass filter
 B. A high-pass filter
 C. An input filter
 D. A low-pass filter
    frequency


3AG 4.1.1 C
What circuit is likely to be found in all types of receivers?

 A. An audio filter
 B. A beat frequency oscillator
 C. A detector
 D. An RF amplifier
    frequency


3AG 4-1.2   D
What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent?

    ┌──────┬─────────────┬──────────────────┐     ANTENNA
    │  ┌───┴────┐    ┌───┴────┐    ┌────────┴───┐  └─┬─┘
    │  │        │    │        │    │   POWER    │    │
    │  │  VFO   ├───>┤ DRIVER ├───>┤ AMPLIFIER  ├──>─┘
    │  └────────┘    └───┬────┘    └────────┬───┘
    │  ┌────────┐        │  ┌────────────┐  │
    │  │ POWER  │        │  │ TELEGRAPH  │  │
    └──┤ SUPPLY │        └──┤    KEY     ├──┘
       └────────┘           └────────────┘

 A. A simple packet-radio transmitter
 B. A simple crystal controlled transmitter
 C. A single-sideband transmitter
 D. A VFO-controlled transmitter


3AG 4-1.3   B
What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent?

                                                 ANTENNA
 ┌─────────────┐    ┌────────┐    ┌────────────┐  └─┬─┘
 │   CRYSTAL   │    │        │    │   POWER    │    │
 │ OSCILLATOR  ├───>┤ DRIVER ├───>┤ AMPLIFIER  ├──>─┘
 └─────────────┘    └───┬────┘    └────────┬───┘
                        │  ┌────────────┐  │
                        │  │ TELEGRAPH  │  │
                        └──┤    KEY     ├──┘
                           └────────────┘

 A. A simple packet-radio transmitter
 B. A simple crystal controlled transmitter
 C. A single-sideband transmitter
 D. A VFO-controlled transmitter


3AG 4-1.4   B
What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram?

  ANTENNA
   └─┬─┘ ┌───────┐    ┌────────────┐  ┌─────┐  ┌───────────┐
     │   │       │    │    IF      │  │     │  │   AUDIO   │
     └──>┤ MIXER ├───>┤ AMPLIFIER  ├─>┤  ?  ├─>┤ AMPLIFIER ├>┌┬───┐
         └───┬───┘    └────────────┘  └──┬──┘  └────────┬──┘ └┴───┘
         ┌───┴───┐                    ┌──┴──┐
         │  OSC  │                    │ BFO │
         └───────┘                    └─────┘

 A. An AGC circuit
 B. A detector
 C. A power supply
 D. A VFO circuit


3AG 4-1.5   D
What type of device does this block diagram represent?

    ┌──────┬─────────────┬──────────────────┐     ANTENNA
    │  ┌───┴────┐    ┌───┴────┐    ┌────────┴───┐  └─┬─┘
    │  │        │    │        │    │   POWER    │    │
    │  │  VFO   ├───>┤ DRIVER ├───>┤ AMPLIFIER  ├──>─┘
    │  └────────┘    └───┬────┘    └────────┬───┘
    │  ┌────────┐        │  ┌────────────┐  │
    │  │ POWER  │        │  │ TELEGRAPH  │  │
    └──┤ SUPPLY │        └──┤    KEY     ├──┘
       └────────┘           └────────────┘

 A. A double-conversion receiver
 B. A variable-frequency oscillator
 C. A simple superheterodyne receiver
 D. A simple CW transmitter


3AG 4-2.1   D
What type of device does this block diagram represent?

  ANTENNA
   └─┬─┘
     │ ┌───────────┐ ┌───────┐ ┌────────┐ ┌────────────┐ ┌──────────┐
     │ │    RF     │ │       │ │  WIDE  │ │    IF      │ │          │
     └>┤ AMPLIFIER ├>┤ MIXER ├>┤ FILTER ├>┤ AMPLIFIER  ├>┤ LIMITER  ├─┐
       └───────────┘ └──┬────┘ └────────┘ └────────────┘ └──────────┘ │
                        │       ┌──────────────────────<──────────────┘
                ┌───────┴─────┐ │ ┌───────────────┐ ┌─────────────┐
                │             │ │ │   FREQUENCY   │ │    AUDIO    │ Speaker
                │ OSCILLATOR  │ └>┤ DISCRIMINATOR ├>┤  AMPLIFIER  ├>┬┬───┐
                └─────────────┘   └───────────────┘ └─────────────┘ └┴───┘

 A. A double-conversion receiver
 B. A variable-frequency oscillator
 C. A simple superheterodyne receiver
 D. A simple FM receiver


3AG 4-2.2   C
What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram?

     ┌───────────┐ ┌────────┐   ┌────────────┐ ┌──────┐ ┌────────────┐
 XX──┤  AUDIO    │ │CLIPPER │   │   CRYSTAL  │ │      │ │            │
 XX  │ AMPLIFIER ├>┤ FILTER ├─┐ │ OSCILLATOR ├>┤  ?   ├>┤ MULTIPLIER ├─┐
 mic └───────────┘ └────────┘ │ └────────────┘ └───┬──┘ └────────────┘ │
                              └──>─────────────────┘                   │
          ┌───────────────────────────────<────────────────────────────┘
          │   ┌─────────────┐   ┌────────────┐ ┌─────────────┐  ANTENNA
          │   │             │   │            │ │    POWER    │    └─┬─┘
          └───┤ MULTIPLIER  ├──>┤ MULTIPLIER ├>┤  AMPLIFIER  ├──────┘
              └─────────────┘   └────────────┘ └─────────────┘

 A. A band-pass filter
 B. A crystal oscillator
 C. A reactance modulator
 D. A rectifier modulator


3AH 1.1   A
What is the meaning of the term MODULATION?

 A. The process of varying some characteristic of a carrier wave for the
    purpose of conveying information
 B. The process of recovering audio information from a received signal
 C. The process of increasing the average power of a single-sideband
    transmission
 D. The process of suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband transmitter


3AH 2.1.1 A
If the modulator circuit of your FM transmitter fails, what emission type would
likely result?

 A. An unmodulated carrier wave
 B. A phase modulated carrier wave
 C. An amplitude modulated carrier wave
 D. A frequency modulated carrier wave


3AH 2.1.2 B
What emission does not have sidebands resulting from modulation?

 A. AM phone
 B. Test
 C. FM phone
 D. RTTY


3AH 2.2.1 C
What is the FCC emission designator for a Morse code telegraphy signal
produced by switching the transmitter output on and off?

 A. Test
 B. AM phone
 C. CW
 D. RTTY


3AH 2.2.2 A
What is CW?

 A. Morse code telegraphy using amplitude modulation
 B. Morse code telegraphy using frequency modulation
 C. Morse code telegraphy using phase modulation
 D. Morse code telegraphy using pulse modulation


3AH 2.3.1 B
What is RTTY?

 A. Amplitude-keyed telegraphy
 B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy
 C. Frequency-modulated telephony
 D. Phase-modulated telephony


3AH 2.3.2 A
What is the emission designation for telegraphy by frequency shift keying
without the use of a modulating tone?

 A. RTTY
 B. MCW
 C. CW
 D. Single-sideband phone


3AH 2.4.1 B
What emission type results when an on/off keyed audio tone is applied to the
microphone input of an FM transmitter?

 A. RTTY
 B. MCW
 C. CW
 D. Single-sideband phone


3AH 2.4.2 D
What is tone-modulated international Morse code telegraphy?

 A. Telephony produced by audio fed into an FM transmitter
 B. Telegraphy produced by on/off keyed audio tone fed into a CW transmitter
 C. Telegraphy produced by on/off keying of the carrier amplitude
 D. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone fed into an FM
    transmitter


3AH 2.5.1 A
What is the emission designated as "MCW"?

 A. Frequency-modulated telegraphy using audio tones
 B. Frequency-modulated telephony
 C. Frequency-modulated facsimile using audio tones
 D. Phase-modulated television


3AH 2.5.2 B
In an ITU emission designator like A1A, what does the first symbol describe?

 A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier
 B. The type of modulation of the main carrier
 C. The speed of a radiotelegraph transmission
 D. The type of the information to be transmitted


3AH 2.5.3 C
What emission type results when an on-off keyed audio oscillator is connected
to the microphone jack of an FM phone transmitter?

 A. SS
 B. RTTY
 C. MCW
 D. Image


3AH 2.6.1 A
In an ITU emission designator like F3B, what does the second symbol describe?

 A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier
 B. The type of modulation of the main carrier
 C. The type of information to be transmitted
 D. The frequency modulation index of a carrier


3AH 2.6.2 B
How would you transmit packet using an FM 2-meter transceiver?

 A. Use your telegraph key to interrupt the carrier wave
 B. Modulate your FM transmitter with audio tones from a terminal node
    controller
 C. Use your mike for telephony
 D. Use your touch-tone (DTMF) key pad to signal in Morse code


3AH 2.7.1 D
What type of emission results when speaking into the microphone of a 2-meter
FM hand-held transceiver?

 A. Amplitude modulated phone
 B. Code telegraphy
 C. An unmodulated carrier wave
 D. Frequency modulated phone


3AH 2.7.2 B
What emission type do most 2-meter FM transmitters transmit?

 A. Interrupted pure carrier wave
 B. Frequency modulated phone
 C. Single-sideband voice emissions
 D. Amplitude modulated carrier waves


3AH 2.8.1 C
What is the most important consideration when installing a 10-meter dipole
inside an attic?

 A. It will exhibit a low angle of radiation
 B. The dipole must always be run horizontally polarized
 C. It will be covered by an insulation to prevent fire and high enough to
    prevent being accidentally touched during transmission
 D. Dipoles usually don't work in attics


3AH 2.8.2 D
Which type of transmitter will produce a frequency modulated carrier wave?

 A. A CW transmitter
 B. An amplitude modulation transmitter
 C. A single-sideband transmitter
 D. A phase modulated transmitter


3AH 3.1   A
What is the term used to describe a constant-amplitude radio-frequency signal?

 A. An RF carrier
 B. An AF carrier
 C. A sideband carrier
 D. A subcarrier


3AH 3.2   B
What is another name for an unmodulated radio-frequency signal?

 A. An AF carrier
 B. An RF carrier
 C. A sideband carrier
 D. A subcarrier


3AH 4.1   C
What characteristic makes FM telephony especially well-suited for local
VHF/UHF radio communications?

 A. Good audio fidelity and intelligibility under weak-signal conditions
 B. Better rejection of multipath distortion than the AM modes
 C. Good audio fidelity and high signal-to-noise ratio above a certain signal
    amplitude threshold
 D. Better carrier frequency stability than the AM modes


3AH 5.1   D
What emission is produced by a transmitter using a reactance modulator?

 A. CW
 B. Unmodulated carrier
 C. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone
 D. Phase modulated phone


3AH 5.2   C
What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?

 A. Amplitude modulation
 B. Pulse modulation
 C. Frequency modulation
 D. Single-sideband modulation


3AH 6.1   D
Many communications receivers have several IF filters that can be selected by
the operator. Why do these filters have different bandwidths?

 A. Because some ham bands are wider than others
 B. Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver sensitivity
 C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings
 D. Because some emission types occupy a wider frequency range than others


3AH 6.1.2 C
List the following signals in order of increasing bandwidth (narrowest signal
first): CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice.

 A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
 B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
 C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
 D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice


3AH 7.1.1 D
To what is the deviation of an FM transmission proportional?

 A. Only the frequency of the audio modulating signal
 B. The frequency and amplitude of the audio modulating frequency
 C. The duty cycle of the audio modulating signal
 D. Only the amplitude of the audio modulating signal


3AH 7.2.1 B
What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?

 A. Increased transmitter power consumption
 B. Out of channel emissions (splatter)
 C. Increased transmitter range
 D. Inadequate carrier suppression


3AH 7.2.2  C
What is SPLATTER?

 A. Interference to adjacent signals caused by excessive transmitter keying
    speeds
 B. Interference to adjacent signals caused by improper transmitter
    neutralization
 C. Interference to adjacent signals caused by overmodulation of a
    transmitter
 D. Interference to adjacent signals caused by parasitic oscillations at
    the antenna


3AI 1-1.1   A
What antenna type best strengthens signals from a particular direction while
attenuating those from other directions?

 A. A beam antenna
 B. An isotropic antenna
 C. A monopole antenna
 D. A vertical antenna


3AI 1-1.2   D
What is a directional antenna?

 A. An antenna whose parasitic elements are all constructed to be directors
 B. An antenna that radiates in direct line-of-sight propagation, but not
    sky-wave or skip propagation
 C. An antenna permanently mounted so as to radiate in only one direction
 D. An antenna that radiates more strongly in some directions than others


3AI 1-1.3   C
What is a Yagi antenna?

 A. Half-wavelength elements stacked vertically and excited in phase
 B. Quarter-wavelength elements arranged horizontally and excited out of
    phase
 C. Half-wavelength linear driven element(s) with parasitically excited
    parallel linear elements
 D. Quarter-wavelength, triangular loop elements


3AI 1-1.4   A
What is the general configuration of the radiating elements of a horizontally
polarized Yagi?

 A. Two or more straight, parallel elements arranged in the same horizontal
    plane
 B. Vertically stacked square or circular loops arranged in parallel
    horizontal planes
 C. Two or more wire loops arranged in parallel vertical planes
 D. A vertical radiator arranged in the center of an effective RF ground
    plane


3AI 1-1.5   C
What type of parasitic beam antenna uses two or more straight metal tubing
elements arranged physically parallel to each other?

 A. A delta loop antenna
 B. A quad antenna
 C. A Yagi antenna
 D. A Zepp antenna


3AI 1-1.6   B
How many directly driven elements does a Yagi antenna have?

 A. None; they are all parasitic
 B. One
 C. Two
 D. All elements are directly driven


3AI 1-1.7   A
What is parasitic beam antenna?

 A. An antenna where the director and reflector elements receive their RF
    excitation by induction or radiation from the driven elements
 B. An antenna where wave traps are used to assure magnetic coupling among
    the elements
 C. An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the
    feed line
 D. An antenna where the driven element receives its RF excitation by
    induction or radiation from the directors


3AI 1-2.1   B
What is a cubical quad antenna?

 A. Four parallel metal tubes, each approximately 1/2 electrical wavelength
    long
 B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one
    electrical wavelength long
 C. A vertical conductor 1/4 electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom
 D. A center-fed wire 1/2 electrical wavelength long


3AI 1-2.2   B
What kind of antenna array is composed of a square full-wave closed loop driven
element with parallel parasitic element(s)?

 A. Delta loop
 B. Cubical quad
 C. Dual rhombic
 D. Stacked Yagi


3AI 1-2.3   D
Approximately how long is one side of the driven element of a cubical quad
antenna?

 A. 2 electrical wavelengths
 B. 1 electrical wavelength
 C. 1/2 electrical wavelength
 D. 1/4 electrical wavelength


3AI 1-2.4   C
Approximately how long is the wire in the driven element of a cubical quad
antenna?

 A. 1/4 electrical wavelength
 B. 1/2 electrical wavelength
 C. 1 electrical wavelength
 D. 2 electrical wavelengths


3AI 1-3.1   A
What is a delta loop antenna?

 A. A variation of the cubical quad antenna with triangular elements
 B. A large copper ring used, direction finding
 C. An antenna system composed of three vertical antennas arranged in a
    triangular shape
 D. An antenna made from several coils of wire on an insulating form


3AI 2-1.1   B
To what does the term horizontal as applied to wave polarization refer?

 A. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the
    earth's surface
 B. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the
    earth's surface
 C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to
    the earth's surface
 D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate horizontally to
    the destination


3AI 2-1.2   C
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when
the feedpoint is in the center of a horizontal side?

 A. Circular
 B. Helical
 C. Horizontal
 D. Vertical


3AI 2-1.3   C
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when
all sides  are at 45 degrees to the earth's surface and the feedpoint is
at the bottom corner?

 A. Circular
 B. Helical
 C. Horizontal
 D. Vertical


3AI 2-2.1   D
What is the polarization of electromagnetic waves radiated from a half-
wavelength antenna perpendicular to the earth's surface?

 A. Circularly polarized waves
 B. Horizontally polarized waves
 C. Parabolically polarized waves
 D. Vertically polarized waves


3AI 2-2.2   D
What is the electromagnetic wave polarization of most man-made electrical
noise radiation in the HF/VHF spectrum?

 A. Horizontal
 B. Left-hand circular
 C. Right-hand circular
 D. Vertical


3AI 2-2.3   C
To what does the term vertical as applied to wave polarization refer?

 A. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the
    earth's surface
 B. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to
    the earth's surface
 C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to
    the earth's surface
 D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate vertically into
    the ionosphere


3AI 2-2.4   D
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when
the feed point is in the center of a vertical side?

 A. Circular
 B. Helical
 C. Horizontal
 D. Vertical


3AI 2-2.5   D
What electromagnetic polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when all
sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's surface and the feedpoint is at a side
corner?

 A. Circular
 B. Helical
 C. Horizontal
 D. Vertical


3AI 3-1.1   D
What is meant by the term standing wave ratio?

 A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line
 B. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line
 C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line
 D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line


3AI 3-1.2   A
What is standing wave ratio a measure of?

 A. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on a feed line
 B. The ratio of maximum to minimum reactance on a feed line
 C. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistance on a feed line
 D. The ratio of maximum to minimum sidebands on a feed line


3AI 3-2.1   A
What is meant by the term forward power?

 A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna
 B. The power radiated from the front of a directional antenna
 C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle
 D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by building and trees


3AI 3-2.2   B
What is meant by the term reflected power?

 A. The power radiated from the back of a directional antenna
 B. The power returned to the transmitter from the antenna
 C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle
 D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by buildings and trees


3AI 3-3.1   D
What happens to the power loss in an unbalanced feed line as the standing
wave ratio increases?

 A. It is unpredictable
 B. It becomes nonexistent
 C. It decreases
 D. It increases


3AI 3-3.2   C
What type of feed line is best suited to operating at a high standing wave
ratio?

 A. Coaxial cable
 B. Flat ribbon "twin lead"
 C. Parallel open-wire line
 D. Twisted pair


3AI 3-3.3   C
What happens to RF energy not delivered to the antenna by a lossy coaxial
cable?

 A. It is radiated by the feed line
 B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground
 C. Some of it is dissipated as heat in the conductors and dielectric
 D. It is canceled because of the voltage ratio of forward power to
    reflected power in the feed line


3AI 4-1.1   D
What is a balanced line?

 A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
 B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to balance out
    harmonics
 C. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at even
    intervals
 D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground


3AI 4-1.2   C
What is an unbalanced line?

 A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground
 B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to suppress harmonics
 C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
 D. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at uneven
    intervals


3AI 4-2.1   B
What is a balanced antenna?

 A. A symmetrical antenna with one side of the feedpoint connected to
    ground
 B. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is symmetrical about
    the feed point
 C. A symmetrical antenna with both sides of the feed point connected to
    ground to balance out harmonics
 D. An antenna designed to be mounted in the center


3AI 4-2.2   A
What is an unbalanced antenna?

 A. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is not symmetrical
    about the feed point
 B. A symmetrical antenna, having neither half connected to ground
 C. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is symmetrical about
    the feed point
 D. A symmetrical antenna with both halves coupled to ground at uneven
    intervals


3AI 4-3.1   A
What device can be installed on a balanced antenna so that it can be fed
through a coaxial cable?

 A. A balun
 B. A loading coil
 C. A triaxial transformer
 D. A wavetrap


3AI 4-3.2   B
What is a balun?

 A. A device that can be used to convert an antenna designed to be fed at
    the center so that it may be fed at one end
 B. A device that may be installed on a balanced antenna so that it may be
    fed with unbalanced feed line
 C. A device that can be installed on an antenna to produce horizontally
    polarized or vertically polarized waves
 D. A device used to allow an antenna to operate on more than one band


3AI 5-1.1   C
List the following types of feed line in order of increasing attenuation
per 100 feet of the line (list the line with the lowest attenuation first):
RG-8, RG-58, RG-174 and open-wire line.

 A. RG-174, RG-58, RG-8, open-wire line
 B. RG-8, open-wire line, RG-58, RG-174
 C. Open-wire line, RG-8, RG-58, RG-174
 D. Open-wire line, RG-174, RG-58, RG-8


3AI 5-1.2   A
You have installed a tower 150 feet from your radio shack, and have a
6-meter Yagi antenna on top.  Which of the following feed lines should
you choose to feed this antenna:  RG-8, RG-58, RG-59 or RG-174

 A. RG-8
 B. RG-58
 C. RG-59
 D. RG-174


3AI 5-2.1   C
You have a 200-foot coil of RG-58 coaxial cable attached to your antenna,
but the antenna is only 50 feet from your radio.  To minimize feed-line
loss, what should you do with the excess cable?

 A. Cut off the excess cable to an even number of wavelengths long
 B. Cut off the excess cable to an odd number of wavelengths long
 C. Cut off the excess cable
 D. Roll the excess cable into a coil a tenth of a wavelength in diameter


3AI 5-2.2   B
How does feed-line length affect signal loss?

 A. The length has no effect on signal loss
 B. As length increases, signal loss increases
 C. As length decreases, signal loss increases
 D. The length is inversely proportional to signal loss


3AI 5-3.1   B
What is the general relationship between frequencies passing through a feed
line and the losses in the feed line?

 A. Loss is independent of frequency
 B. Loss increases with increasing frequency
 C. Loss decreases with increasing frequency
 D. There is no predictable relationship


3AI 5-3.2   A
As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to conductor losses in a
feed line?

 A. The losses decrease
 B. The losses increase
 C. The losses remain the same
 D. The losses become infinite


3AI 5-3.3   B
As operating frequency increases, what happens to conductor losses in a feed
line?

 A. The losses decrease
 B. The losses increase
 C. The losses remain the same
 D. The losses decrease to zero


3AI 6-1.1   D
You are using open-wire feed line in your Amateur Radio station.  Why
should you ensure that no one can come in contact with the feed line while
you are transmitting?

 A. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will cause a
    short circuit, probably damaging your transmitter
 B. Because the wire is so small they may break it
 C. Because contact with the feel line while transmitting will cause
    parasitic radiation
 D. Because high RF voltages can be present on open-wire feed line


3AI 6-2.1   C
How can you minimize exposure to radio frequency energy from your
transmitting antennas?

 A. Use vertical polarization
 B. Use horizontal polarization
 C. Mount the antennas where no one can come near them
 D. Mount the antenna close to the ground