Share Gallery 1/share_gal_1.zip/share_gal_1/HR/HR031A.ZIP/POOL4A.TXT

Text File | 1991-02-01 | 141KB | 5,059 lines

4AA 1.1  A
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 75
meter wavelength band?

 A. 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz
 B. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
 C. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz
 D. 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz


4AA 1.2  B
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 40
meter wavelength band?

 A. 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz
 B. 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz
 C. 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz
 D. 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz


4AA 1.3  D
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 20
meter wavelength band?

 A. 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
 B. 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
 C. 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
 D. 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz


4AA 1.4  C
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 15
meter wavelength band?

 A. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz
 B. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz
 C. 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz
 D. 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz


4AA 2.1  A
What is meant by automatic retransmission from a repeater station?

 A. The repeater is actuated by a received electrical signal
 B. The repeater is actuated by a telephone control link
 C. The repeater station is actuated by a control operator
 D. The repeater station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse code


4AA 2.2  D
What is the term for the operation of a repeater whereby the repeater station
is actuated solely by the presence of a received signal through electrical or
electromechanical means, without any direct, positive action by the control
operator?

 A. Simplex retransmission
 B. Manual retransmission
 C. Linear retransmission
 D. Automatic retransmission


4AA 2.3  B
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station automatically
retransmit programs or the radio signals of other amateur stations?

 A. Only when the station licensee is present
 B. Only if the station is a repeater or a space station
 C. Only when the control operator is present
 D. Only during portable operation


4AA 2.4  A
Which of the following stations may not be automatically controlled?

 A. A station transmitting control signals to a model craft
 B. A station in beacon operation
 C. A station in auxiliary operation
 D. A station in repeater operation


4AA 3.1  D
What is meant by repeater operation?

 A. An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third party
    communications
 B. An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point and a
    remotely controlled station
 C. Manual or simplex operation
 D. Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are
    automatically retransmitted


4AA 3.2  A
What is a closed repeater?

 A. A repeater containing control circuitry that limits repeater access to
    certain users
 B. A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access to
    any licensed amateur
 C. A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same frequency,
    a closed pair
 D. A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-in-Charge


4AA 3.3  C
What frequencies in the 10 meter wavelength band are available for repeater
operation?

 A. 28.0-28.7 MHz
 B. 29.0-29.7 MHz
 C. 29.5-29.7 MHz
 D. 28.5-29.7 MHz


4AA 3.4  D
Which of the following repeater operating and technical parameters are NOT the
responsibility of the area frequency coordinator?

 A. The repeater effective radiated power
 B. The repeater transmit and receive frequencies
 C. The repeater Height Above Average Terrain (HAAT)
 D. The repeater control sign


4AA 3.5  C
What frequencies in the 23-cm wavelength band are available for repeater
operation?

 A. 1270-1300 MHz
 B. 1270-1295 MHz
 C. 1240-1300 MHz
 D. Repeater operation is not permitted in the 23-cm wavelength band


4AA 3.6  A
What is an open repeater?

 A. A repeater that does not contain control circuitry that limits repeater
    access to certain users
 B. A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater group
 C. A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that it is
    available for use
 D. A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated


4AA 3.7  D
What frequencies in the 6-meter wavelength band are available for repeater
operation?

 A. 51.00-52.00 MHz
 B. 50.25-52.00 MHz
 C. 52.00-53.00 MHz
 D. 51.00-54.00 MHz


4AA 3.8  A
What frequencies in the 2-meter wavelength band are available for repeater
operation?

 A. 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz
 B. 144.50-148.00 MHz
 C. 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz
 D. 146.00-148.00 MHz


4AA 3.9  B
What frequencies in the 1.25-meter wavelength band are available for repeater
operation?

 A. 220.25-225.00 MHz
 B. 220.50-225.00 MHz
 C. 221.00-225.00 MHz
 D. 223.00-225.00 MHz


4AA 3.10 A
What frequencies in the 0.70-meter wavelength band are available for repeater
operation?

 A. 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz
 B. 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz
 C. 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz
 D. 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz


4AA 4.1  D
What is meant by auxiliary station operation?

 A. Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that
    indicated on the station license for a period of more than three months
 B. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 50.1
    MHz
 C. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 29.5
    MHz
 D. Transmission of communications point-to-point within a system of
    cooperating amateur stations


4AA 4.2  A
What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation?

 A. Point-to-point radio communications within a system of cooperating amateur
    stations
 B. Remote control of model craft
 C. Passing of international third-party communications
 D. The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts


4AA 4.3  B
A station in auxiliary operation may only communicate with which stations?

 A. Stations in the public safety service
 B. Other amateur stations within a system of cooperating amateur stations
 C. Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation
 D. Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control


4AA 4.4  C
What frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary operation?

 A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
    436-438 MHz
 B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
    435-437 MHz
 C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
    435-438 MHz
 D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
    434-437 MHz


4AA 5.1  D
What is meant by REMOTE CONTROL of an amateur radio station?

 A. Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical location
    other than that shown on the station license
 B. Automatic operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere
    than at the station transmitter
 C. An amateur radio station operating under automatic control
 D. A control operator indirectly manipulating the operating adjustments in
    the station through a control link


4AA 5.2  A
What is one responsibility of a control operator of a station under remote
control?

 A. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3 minutes
    if the control link malfunctions
 B. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4 minutes
    if the control link malfunctions
 C. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5 minutes
    if the control link malfunctions
 D. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10 minutes
    if the control link malfunctions


4AA 5.3  C
If the control link for a station under remote control malfunctions, there
must be a provision to limit transmission to what time length?

 A. 5 seconds
 B. 10 minutes
 C. 3 minutes
 D. 5 minutes


4AA 5.4  C
What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of an amateur radio
station?

 A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
    436-438 MHz
 B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
    435-437 MHz
 C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
    435-438 MHz
 D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
    434-437 MHz


4AA 5.5  D
What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of a station in
repeater operation?

 A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
    436-438 MHz
 B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
    435-437 MHz
 C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
    434-437 MHz
 D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
    435-438 MHz


4AA 6.1  A
What is meant by AUTOMATIC CONTROL of an amateur radio station?

 A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator
    does not have to be present at the control point
 B. Radio communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station
 C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have
    to be present at the control point at all times
 D. The use of a control link between a control point and a remotely
    controlled station


4AA 6.2  B
How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under
automatic control differ from one under local control?

 A. Under local control, there is no control operator
 B. Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be
    present at a control point
 C. Under automatic control, there is no control operator
 D. Under local control, a control operator is not required to be present
    at the control point at all times


4AA 6.3  B
Which of the following amateur stations may be operated by automatic control?

 A. Stations without a control operator
 B. Stations in repeater operation
 C. Stations under remote control
 D. Stations controlling model craft


4AA 7.1  C
What is a control link?

 A. The automatic-control devices of an unattended station
 B. An automatically operated link
 C. The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely
    controlled station
 D. A transmission-limiting timing device


4AA 7.2  D
What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control
point and a remotely controlled station?

 A. Tone link
 B. Wire control
 C. Remote control
 D. Control link


4AA 8.1  A
What is meant by local control?

 A. The use of a control operator who directly manipulates the operating
    adjustments
 B. The OSCAR satellite transponder
 C. A carrier operated relay system
 D. The use of a portable handheld to turn on or off the repeater


4AA 8.2  B
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

 A. Any amateur operator
 B. Any Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator
 C. Any General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator
 D. Any Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator


4AA 9.1  C
How may a repeater station be identified?

 A. By a burst of digitized information
 B. Only voice may be used for identification
 C. By CW or voice
 D. Only CW may be used for identification


4AA 9.2  C
When a repeater station is identified in Morse code using an automatic keying
device, what is the maximum code speed permitted?

 A. 13 words per minute
 B. 30 words per minute
 C. 20 words per minute
 D. There is no limitation


4AA 9.3  D
How often must a beacon station be identified?

 A. Every eight minutes
 B. Only at the end of the series of transmissions
 C. At the beginning of a series of transmissions
 D. At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of activity


4AA 9.4  A
When may a repeater be identified using digital codes?

 A. Any time that particular code is used for at least part of the
    communication
 B. Digital identification is not allowed
 C. Only voice may be allowed
 D. No identification is needed in digital transmissions


4AA 10.1 B
When is prior FCC approval required before constructing or altering an amateur
station antenna structure?

 A. When the antenna structure violates local building codes
 B. When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet
 C. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 150
    feet high
 D. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 100
    feet high


4AA 10.2 C
What must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC before constructing or
altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high?

 A. An Environmental Impact Statement
 B. A Special Temporary Authorization
 C. Prior approval
 D. An effective radiated power statement


4AA 11.1 B
Without special FCC approval, what maximum height above ground level
(excluding airport proximity effects) is permitted for any amateur antenna
support structure, including the radiating elements, tower, supports, etc.?

 A. 46 m (150 feet)
 B. 61 m (200 feet)
 C. 76 m (250 feet)
 D. 91 m (300 feet)


4AA 11.2 A
From what government agencies must permission be obtained if you wish to erect
an amateur antenna structure that exceeds 200 feet above ground level?

 A. Federal Aviation Administration and Federal Communications Commission
 B. Environmental Protection Agency and Federal Communications Commission
 C. Federal Aviation Administration and Environmental Protection Agency
 D. Environmental Protection Agency and National Aeronautics and Space
    Administration


4AA 12.1 B
Which of the following types of amateur communications is NOT a "prohibited
transmission" as defined in Part 97?

 A. Transmission of messages into a disaster area for hire or for material
    compensation
 B. Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a commercial
    tow truck service
 C. Transmission of communications that facilitate the regular business or
    commercial affairs of any party
 D. Transmission of communications concerning moving, supplying, and
    quartering participants in a charity event as long as the sponsoring
    charity is the principal beneficiary of such communications, not the
    public


4AA 12.2 C
May an amateur operator inform other amateur operators of the availability of
apparatus for sale or trade over the airwaves?

 A. You are not allowed to sell or trade equipment over the air
 B. You are allowed to derive a profit by buying or selling equipment on the
    air on a regular basis
 C. This is a permissible activity if the apparatus can normally be used at an
    amateur station and is not done for profit by the offering individual on a
    regular basis
 D. This is allowed only if you also give the serial number of the equipment


4AA 12.3 D
Under what conditions, if any, may communications be transmitted to a
commercial business by an amateur station?

 A. When the total remuneration does not exceed $25
 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC
 C. When transmitting international third-party communications
 D. When the immediate safety of human life or immediate protection of
    property is involved


4AA 13.1 D
What are the only types of messages that may be transmitted to an amateur
station in a foreign country?

 A. Supplies needed, on a routine schedule
 B. Emergency messages or business messages
 C. Business messages or messages of a technical nature
 D. Personal remarks, tests, or messages of a technical nature


4AA 13.2 B
What are the limitations on international amateur radio communications
regarding the types of messages transmitted?

 A. Emergency communications only
 B. Technical or personal messages only
 C. Business communications only
 D. Call sign and signal reports only


4AA 14.1 C
Under what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators accept payment for
using their own stations (other than a club station) to send messages?

 A. When employed by the FCC
 B. When passing emergency traffic
 C. Under no circumstances
 D. When passing international third-party traffic


4AA 14.2 D
Under what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an amateur station in
repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication services to
another party?

 A. When the repeater is operating under portable power
 B. When the repeater is under local control
 C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
 D. Under no circumstances


4AA 15.1 A
Who is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination?

 A. The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier
 B. The FCC
 C. The VEC
 D. Any Novice licensee


4AA 15.2   B
What must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove?

 A. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse
    code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute
 B. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse
    code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute
 C. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse
    code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute
 D. The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code at a
    rate of not less than 13 words per minute


4AA 15.3   A
Which telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination?

 A. The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the question
    mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
 B. The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the open and
    closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
 C. The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the dollar
    sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
 D. A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, and the question mark


4AA 16.1   C
Who is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written examination?

 A. The FCC
 B. Any Novice licensee
 C. The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier
 D. The VEC


4AA 16.2   D
Where do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for preparing an Element 2
written examination?

 A. They must prepare the examination from material contained in the ARRL
    Handbook orobtain a question set from the FCC
 B. They must prepare the examination from material contained in a question
    pool maintained by the FCC in Washington
 C. They must prepare the examination from material contained in a question
    pool maintained by the local FCC field office
 D. They must prepare the examination from a common question pool maintained
    by the VECs or obtain a question set from a supplier


4AA 17.1   A
Who is eligible for administering an examination for the Novice operator
license?

 A. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class
    license and at least 18 years old
 B. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or
    Extra class license and at least 18 years old
 C. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class
    license and at least 16 years old
 D. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or
    Extra class license and at least 16 years old


4AA 17.2   B
Within how many days after the administration of a successful Novice
examination must the examiners submit the application to the FCC?

 A. Within one week of the administration date
 B. Within 10 days of the administration date
 C. Within 5 days of the administration date
 D. Within 30 days of the administration date


4AA 17.3   C
Where must the completed Form 610 be submitted after the administration of a
successful Novice examination?

 A. To the nearest FCC Field Office
 B. To the FCC in Washington, DC
 C. To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA
 D. To any VEC


4AA 18.1   B
What is the minimum passing score on a written examination element for the
Novice operator license?

 A. A minimum of 19 correct answers
 B. A minimum of 22 correct answers
 C. A minimum of 21 correct answers
 D. A minimum of 24 correct answers


4AA 18.2   D
How many questions must an Element 2 written examination contain?

 A. 25
 B. 50
 C. 40
 D. 30


4AA 18.3   B
In a telegraphy examination, how many characters are counted as one word?

 A. 2
 B. 5
 C. 8
 D. 10


4AA 19.1   C
What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?

 A. 16 years old
 B. 21 years old
 C. 18 years old
 D. 13 years old


4AA 19.2   A
Under what circumstances, if any, may volunteer examiners be compensated for
their services?

 A. Under no circumstances
 B. When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25
 C. The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25 miles
    to the test site
 D. Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the examination
    session


4AA 19.3   A
Under what circumstances, if any, may a person whose amateur station license or
amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a volunteer
examiner?

 A. Under no circumstances
 B. Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension
 C. Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation of suspension
 D. Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC


4AA 19.4   B
Under what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a company which is engaged
in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur radio
transmissions be a volunteer examiner?

 A. If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the
    company
 B. If the employee does not normally communicate with the manufacturing or
    distribution part of the company
 C. If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her customers
 D. If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and
    policies part of the company


4AA 20.1   C
What are the penalties for fraudulently administering examinations?

 A. The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a period not to
    exceed 3 months
 B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the
    offense was committed
 C. The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the operator's license
    suspended
 D. The VE may be restricted to administrating only Novice class license
    examinations


4AA 20.2   D
What are the penalties for administering examinations for money or other
considerations?

 A. The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a period not to
    exceed 3 months
 B. T VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the
    offense was committed
 C. The VE will be restricted to administering only Novice class license
    examinations
 D. The VE's amateur station licence may be revoked and the operator's license
    suspended


4AB 1.1 D
What is FACSIMILE?

 A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when
    printed
 B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
 C. The transmission of video by amateur television
 D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper


4AB 1.2 A
What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an
amateur station?

 A. The modern standard is 240 lines per minute
 B. The modern standard is 50 lines per minute
 C. The modern standard is 150 lines per second
 D. The modern standard is 60 lines per second


4AB 1.3 B
What is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile picture transmitted
by an amateur station?

 A. Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
 B. Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
 C. Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm
 D. 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm


4AB 1.4 B
What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?

 A. Television
 B. Facsimile
 C. Xerography
 D. ACSSB


4AB 1.5 C
In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted
into voltage variations?

 A. With an LED
 B. With a Hall-effect transistor
 C. With a photodetector
 D. With an optoisolator


4AB 2.1 D
What is SLOW-SCAN television?

 A. The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio
 B. The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper
 C. The transmission of moving pictures by radio
 D. The transmission of still pictures by radio


4AB 2.2 B
What is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan television?

 A. 20 lines per minute
 B. 15 lines per second
 C. 4 lines per minute
 D. 240 lines per minute


4AB 2.3 C
How many lines are there in each frame of an amateur slow-scan television
picture?

 A. 30
 B. 60
 C. 120
 D. 180


4AB 2.4 C
What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television
picture?

 A. 2300 Hz
 B. 2000 Hz
 C. 1500 Hz
 D. 120 Hz


4AB 2.5 D
What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television
picture?

 A. 120 Hz
 B. 1500 Hz
 C. 2000 Hz
 D. 2300 Hz


4AC 1.1 C
What is a SPORADIC-E condition?

 A. Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations
 B. A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-layer height
 C. Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height
 D. Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height


4AC 1.2 D
What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively
dense ionization develop seasonally at E layer heights?

 A. Auroral propagation
 B. Ducting
 C. Scatter
 D. Sporadic-E


4AC 1.3 A
In what region of the world is SPORADIC-E most prevalent?

 A. The equatorial regions
 B. The arctic regions
 C. The northern hemisphere
 D. The polar regions


4AC 1.4 B
On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of
sporadic-E most often observed?

 A. 2 meters
 B. 6 meters
 C. 20 meters
 D. 160 meters


4AC 1.5 A
What appears to be the major cause of the SPORADIC-E condition?

 A. Wind shear
 B. Sunspots
 C. Temperature inversions
 D. Meteors


4AC 2.1 B
What is a SELECTIVE FADING effect?

 A. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving
    station
 B. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components
    of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
 C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere,
    as experienced at the receiving station
 D. A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and
    transmitting stations


4AC 2.2 C
What is the propagation effect called when phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission are experienced at the recovery station?

 A. Faraday rotation
 B. Diversity reception
 C. Selective fading
 D. Phase shift


4AC 2.3 D
What is the major cause of selective fading?

 A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
 B. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the
    receiving station
 C. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
 D. Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission,
    as experienced at the receiving station


4AC 2.4 B
Which emission modes suffer the most from SELECTIVE FADING?

 A. CW and SSB
 B. FM and double sideband AM
 C. SSB and AMTOR
 D. SSTV and CW


4AC 2.5 A
How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect SELECTIVE FADING?

 A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
 B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
 C. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
 D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect


4AC 3.1 D
What effect does AURORAL ACTIVITY have upon radio communications?

 A. The readability of SSB signals increases
 B. FM communications are clearer
 C. CW signals have a clearer tone
 D. CW signals have a fluttery tone


4AC 3.2 C
What is the cause of AURORAL ACTIVITY?

 A. A high sunspot level
 B. A low sunspot level
 C. The emission of charged particles from the sun
 D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes


4AC 3.3 B
In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be
pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?

 A. South
 B. North
 C. East
 D. West


4AC 3.4 D
Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?

 A. At F-layer height
 B. In the equatorial band
 C. At D-layer height
 D. At E-layer height


4AC 3.5 A
Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?

 A. CW and SSB
 B. SSB and FM
 C. FM and CW
 D. RTTY and AM


4AC 4.1 D
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

 A. E-layer skip
 B. D-layer skip
 C. Auroral skip
 D. Radio waves may be bent


4AC 4.2 A
How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric
horizon?

 A. By approximately 15% of the distance
 B. By approximately twice the distance
 C. By approximately one-half the distance
 D. By approximately four times the distance


4AC 4.3 B
To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited?

 A. Approximately 1000 miles
 B. Approximately 500 miles
 C. Approximately 1500 miles
 D. Approximately 2000 miles


4AC 4.4 C
What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received
from a station over 500 miles away?

 A. D-layer absorption
 B. Faraday rotation
 C. Tropospheric ducting
 D. Moonbounce


4AC 4.5 A
What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with other
particles?

 A. Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave
 B. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave
 C. Aurora is created
 D. Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance


4AD 1.1  B
What is a FREQUENCY STANDARD?

 A. A net frequency
 B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
 C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
 D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies


4AD 1.2  A
What is a FREQUENCY-MARKER GENERATOR?

 A. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
 B. A sweep generator
 C. A broadband white noise generator
 D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies


4AD 1.3  B
How is a frequency-marker generator used?

 A. In conjunction with a grid-dip meter
 B. To provide reference points on a receiver dial
 C. As the basic frequency element of a transmitter
 D. To directly measure wavelength


4AD 1.4  A
What is a FREQUENCY COUNTER?

 A. A frequency measuring device
 B. A frequency marker generator
 C. A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use
    before automatic transmissions are made
 D. A broadband white noise generator


4AD 1.5  D
How is a frequency counter used?

 A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial
 B. To generate a frequency standard
 C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter
 D. To measure frequency


4AD 1.6  C
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading
of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-
1.0 ppm?

 A. 165.2 Hz
 B. 14.652 kHz
 C. 146.52 Hz
 D. 1.4652 MHz


4AD 1.7  A
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading
of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-
0.1 ppm?

 A. 14.652 Hz
 B. 0.1 MHz
 C. 1.4652 Hz
 D. 1.4652 kHz


4AD 1.8  D
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading
of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10
ppm?

 A. 146.52 Hz
 B. 10 Hz
 C. 146.52 kHz
 D. 1465.20 Hz


4AD 1.9  D
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading
of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-
1.0 ppm?

 A. 43.21 MHz
 B. 10 Hz
 C. 1.0 MHz
 D. 432.1 Hz


4AD 1.10 A
What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of
432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1
ppm?

 A. 43.21 Hz
 B. 0.1 MHz
 C. 432.1 Hz
 D. 0.2 MHz


4AD 1.11 C
What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of
432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10
ppm?

 A. 10 MHz
 B. 10 Hz
 C. 4321 Hz
 D. 432.1 Hz


4AD 2.1  C
What is a DIP-METER?

 A. A field strength meter
 B. An SWR meter
 C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
 D. A marker generator


4AD 2.2  D
Why is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators?

 A. It can measure signal strength accurately
 B. It can measure frequency accurately
 C. It can measure transmitter output power accurately
 D. It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit


4AD 2.3  B
How does a dip-meter function?

 A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector coil
 B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current
 C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
 D. Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q


4AD 2.4  D
What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?

 A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure
    percentage of modulation
 B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation
 C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
 D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned
    circuit resonant frequency


4AD 2.5  B
What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being
checked?

 A. Resistive and inductive
 B. Inductive and capacitive
 C. Resistive and capacitive
 D. Strong field


4AD 2.6  A
How tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned circuit being checked?

 A. As loosely as possible, for best accuracy
 B. As tightly as possible, for best accuracy
 C. First loose, then tight, for best accuracy
 D. With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be
    checked, for best accuracy


4AD 2.7  B
What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with the tuned
circuit being checked?

 A. Harmonics are generated
 B. A less accurate reading results
 C. Cross modulation occurs
 D. Intermodulation distortion occurs


4AD 3.1  A
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an
oscilloscope?

 A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth
 B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
 C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments
 D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments


4AD 3.2  D
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a
D'Arsonval movement type meter?

 A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
 B. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current
 C. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass
 D. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance


4AD 3.3  B
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a
frequency counter?

 A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base
    stability
 B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
 C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base
    stability
 D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and
    temperature coefficient of the logic


4AD 3.4  D
How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?

 A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base
 B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the
    vertical sweep rate
 C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier
    frequency response
 D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier
    frequency response


4AD 3.5  C
How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?

 A. By using slower digital logic
 B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
 C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base
 D. By using faster digital logic


4AD 4.1  D
What is the condition called which occurs when the signals of two transmitters
in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and
unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original
transmissions are generated?

 A. Amplifier desensitization
 B. Neutralization
 C. Adjacent channel interference
 D. Intermodulation interference


4AD 4.2  B
How does INTERMODULATION INTERFERENCE between two transmitters usually occur?

 A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from
    airplanes passing overhead
 B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of
    their final amplifiers
 C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one
    or both of their final amplifiers
 D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from
    airplanes passing overhead


4AD 4.3  B
How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close
proximity often be reduced or eliminated?

 A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
 B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed
    line to the transmitter and duplexer
 C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
 D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line


4AD 4.4  D
What can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband
phone transmitter?

 A. Reduced amplifier efficiency
 B. Increased intelligibility
 C. Sideband inversion
 D. Distortion


4AD 4.5  B
How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier
design?

 A. By using a push-push amplifier
 B. By using a push-pull amplifier
 C. By operating class C
 D. By operating class AB


4AD 5.1  C
What is RECEIVER DESENSITIZING?

 A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low
 B. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high
 C. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a
    nearby frequency
 D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned
    down


4AD 5.2  A
What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the
signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band?

 A. Desensitizing
 B. Quieting
 C. Cross modulation interference
 D. Squelch gain rollback


4AD 5.3  C
What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by
unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals?

 A. Intermodulation distortion
 B. Quieting
 C. Desensitizing
 D. Overloading


4AD 5.4  C
What causes RECEIVER DESENSITIZING?

 A. Audio gain adjusted too low
 B. Squelch gain adjusted too high
 C. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
 D. Squelch gain adjusted too low


4AD 5.5  A
How can RECEIVER DESENSITIZING be reduced?

 A. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
 B. Increase the transmitter audio gain
 C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
 D. Increase the receiver bandwidth


4AD 6.1  D
What is CROSS-MODULATION INTERFERENCE?

 A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type
 B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
 C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
 D. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired
    signal


4AD 6.2  B
What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very
strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?

 A. Intermodulation distortion
 B. Cross-modulation interference
 C. Receiver quieting
 D. Capture effect


4AD 6.3  A
How can CROSS-MODULATION in a receiver be reduced?

 A. By installing a filter at the receiver
 B. By using a better antenna
 C. By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain
 D. By adjusting the pass-band tuning


4AD 6.4  C
What is the result of CROSS-MODULATION?

 A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
 B. Receiver quieting
 C. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
 D. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier


4AD 7.1  C
What is the CAPTURE EFFECT?

 A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
 B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
 C. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
 D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal


4AD 7.2  C
What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone
signal by another FM-phone signal?

 A. Desensitization
 B. Cross-modulation interference
 C. Capture effect
 D. Frequency discrimination


4AD 7.3  A
With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced?

 A. FM
 B. SSB
 C. AM
 D. CW


4AE 1.1  A
What is REACTIVE POWER?

 A. Wattless, non-productive power
 B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
 C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
 D. Power consumed in circuit Q


4AE 1.2  D
What is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with
inductors and capacitors?

 A. Effective power
 B. True power
 C. Peak envelope power
 D. Reactive power


4AE 1.3  A
What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or
electrostatic field?

 A. Potential energy
 B. Amperes-joules
 C. Joules-coulombs
 D. Kinetic energy


4AE 1.4  B
What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances in
series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them?

 A. Capacitance
 B. Resonance
 C. Conductance
 D. Resistance


4AE 2.1  C
What is RESONANCE in an electrical circuit?

 A. The highest frequency that will pass current
 B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
 C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance
 D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum


4AE 2.2  B
Under what conditions does resonance occur in an electrical circuit?

 A. When the power factor is at a minimum
 B. When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
 C. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive
    reactances is equal to the resonant frequency
 D. When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive
    reactances is equal to the resonant frequency


4AE 2.3  D
What is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an electrical circuit when
the inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance?

 A. Reactive quiescence
 B. High Q
 C. Reactive equilibrium
 D. Resonance


4AE 2.4  B
What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at
resonance?

 A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
 B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
 C. Approximately equal to XL
 D. Approximately equal to XC


4AE 2.5  A
What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit
at resonance?

 A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
 B. Approximately equal to XL
 C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
 D. Approximately equal to XC


4AE 2.6  B
What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at
resonance?

 A. It is at a minimum
 B. It is at a maximum
 C. It is DC
 D. It is zero


4AE 2.7  B
What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at
resonance?

 A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum
 B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum
 C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is DC
 D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero


4AE 3.1  A
What is the SKIN EFFECT?

 A. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
    conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases
 B. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
    conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases
 C. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor
    increase the impedance
 D. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor
    decrease the impedance


4AE 3.2  C
What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF current flows along the
surface of the conductor?

 A. Layer effect
 B. Seeburg Effect
 C. Skin effect
 D. Resonance


4AE 3.3  A
Where does practically all of the RF current flow in a conductor?

 A. Along the surface
 B. In the center of the conductor
 C. In the magnetic field around the conductor
 D. In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center


4AE 3.4  A
Why does practically all of an RF current flow within a few
thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface?

 A. Because of skin effect
 B. Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the DC
    resistance
 C. Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior
 D. Because of the AC-resistance of the conductor's self inductance


4AE 3.5  C
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC?

 A. Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies
 B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
 C. Because of skin effect
 D. Because conductors are non-linear devices


4AE 4.1  B
What is a MAGNETIC FIELD?

 A. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
 B. A force set up when current flows through a conductor
 C. The force between the plates of a charged capacitor
 D. The force that drives current through a resistor


4AE 4.2  D
In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is
flowing?

 A. In the same direction as the current
 B. In a direction opposite to the current flow
 C. In all directions; omnidirectional
 D. In a direction determined by the left hand rule


4AE 4.3  C
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

 A. A battery
 B. A transformer
 C. A capacitor
 D. An inductor


4AE 4.4  B
What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an
electrostatic field?

 A. Coulombs
 B. Joules
 C. Watts
 D. Volts


4AE 4.5  B
What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?

 A. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the
    plates
 B. Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric
    constant of the material between the plates
 C. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant
    of the material between the plates
 D. Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric
    constant of the material between the plates


4AE 4.6  A
What is the dielectric constant for air?

 A. Approximately 1
 B. Approximately 2
 C. Approximately 4
 D. Approximately 0


4AE 4.7  D
What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?

 A. The resistance divided by the current
 B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
 C. The diameter of the conductor
 D. The amount of current


4AE 5.1  C
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 50
microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

 A. 79.6 MHz
 B. 1.78 MHz
 C. 3.56 MHz
 D. 7.96 MHz


4AE 5.2  B
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 40
microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

 A. 1.99 kHz
 B. 1.78 MHz
 C. 1.99 MHz
 D. 1.78 kHz


4AE 5.3  C
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 50
microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

 A. 3.18 MHz
 B. 3.18 kHz
 C. 7.12 MHz
 D. 7.12 kHz


4AE 5.4  A
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 25
microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

 A. 10.1 MHz
 B. 63.7 MHz
 C. 10.1 kHz
 D. 63.7 kHz


4AE 5.5  B
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 3
microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

 A. 13.1 MHz
 B. 14.5 MHz
 C. 14.5 kHz
 D. 13.1 kHz


4AE 5.6  D
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 4
microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?

 A. 19.9 kHz
 B. 17.8 kHz
 C. 19.9 MHz
 D. 17.8 MHz


4AE 5.7  C
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 8
microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?

 A. 2.84 MHz
 B. 28.4 MHz
 C. 21.3 MHz
 D. 2.13 MHz


4AE 5.8  A
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 3
microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?

 A. 23.7 MHz
 B. 23.7 kHz
 C. 35.4 kHz
 D. 35.4 MHz


4AE 5.9  B
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 4
microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?

 A. 28.1 kHz
 B. 28.1 MHz
 C. 49.7 MHz
 D. 49.7 kHz


4AE 5.10 C
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 1
microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?

 A. 17.7 MHz
 B. 17.7 kHz
 C. 53.1 MHz
 D. 53.1 kHz


4AE 5.11 A
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 1
microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?

 A. 50.3 MHz
 B. 15.9 MHz
 C. 15.9 kHz
 D. 50.3 kHz


4AE 5.12 B
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2
microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?

 A. 29.1 kHz
 B. 29.1 MHz
 C. 5.31 MHz
 D. 5.31 kHz


4AE 5.13 C
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 5
microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?

 A. 23.7 kHz
 B. 3.54 kHz
 C. 23.7 MHz
 D. 3.54 MHz


4AE 5.14 D
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2
microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?

 A. 2.65 kHz
 B. 20.5 kHz
 C. 2.65 MHz
 D. 20.5 MHz


4AE 5.15 A
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 15
microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?

 A. 18.4 MHz
 B. 2.12 MHz
 C. 18.4 kHz
 D. 2.12 kHz


4AE 5.16 B
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 3
microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

 A. 1.33 kHz
 B. 14.5 MHz
 C. 1.33 MHz
 D. 14.5 kHz


4AE 5.17 C
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 40
microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?

 A. 6.63 MHz
 B. 6.63 kHz
 C. 10.3 MHz
 D. 10.3 kHz


4AE 5.18 D
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 10
microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?

 A. 3.18 MHz
 B. 3.18 kHz
 C. 7.12 kHz
 D. 7.12 MHz


4AE 5.19 A
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 200
microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

 A. 3.56 MHz
 B. 7.96 kHz
 C. 3.56 kHz
 D. 7.96 MHz


4AE 5.20 B
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 90
microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?

 A. 1.77 MHz
 B. 1.68 MHz
 C. 1.77 kHz
 D. 1.68 kHz


4AE 5.21 A
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

 A. 18.9 kHz
 B. 1.89 kHz
 C. 189 Hz
 D. 58.7 kHz


4AE 5.22 D
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?

 A. 58.7 kHz
 B. 606 kHz
 C. 47.3 kHz
 D. 16.5 kHz


4AE 5.23 C
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

 A. 211 kHz
 B. 16.5 kHz
 C. 47.3 kHz
 D. 21.1 kHz


4AE 5.24 D
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218?

 A. 21.1 kHz
 B. 27.9 kHz
 C. 17 kHz
 D. 58.7 kHz


4AE 5.25 A
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150?

 A. 95 kHz
 B. 10.5 kHz
 C. 10.5 MHz
 D. 17 kHz


4AE 5.26 D
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95?

 A. 4.49 kHz
 B. 44.9 kHz
 C. 22.3 kHz
 D. 222.6 kHz


4AE 5.27 B
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225?

 A. 4.49 kHz
 B. 44.9 kHz
 C. 22.3 kHz
 D. 223 kHz


4AE 5.28 A
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195?

 A. 92.8 kHz
 B. 10.8 kHz
 C. 22.3 kHz
 D. 44.9 kHz


4AE 5.29 C
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

 A. 22.3 kHz
 B. 76.2 kHz
 C. 31.4 kHz
 D. 10.8 kHz


4AE 5.30 D
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a
resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?

 A. 22.3 kHz
 B. 10.8 kHz
 C. 13.1 kHz
 D. 76.2 kHz


4AE 5.31 A
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000
ohms?

 A. 75.1
 B. 7.51
 C. 71.5
 D. 0.013


4AE 5.32 B
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000
ohms?

 A. 4.31
 B. 43.1
 C. 13.3
 D. 0.023


4AE 5.33 C
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance is 180 ohms?

 A. 0.00735
 B. 7.35
 C. 0.136
 D. 13.3


4AE 5.34 D
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000
ohms?

 A. 7.35
 B. 0.0319
 C. 71.5
 D. 31.9


4AE 5.35 D
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms?

 A. 36.8
 B. 0.273
 C. 0.368
 D. 2.73


4AE 5.36 A
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms?

 A. 0.221
 B. 4.52
 C. 0.00452
 D. 22.1


4AE 5.37 B
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000
ohms?

 A. 22.1
 B. 39
 C. 25.6
 D. 0.0256


4AE 5.38 B
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance is 2,200 ohms?

 A. 0.031
 B. 32.2
 C. 31.1
 D. 25.6


4AE 5.39 D
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance is 220 ohms?

 A. 23
 B. 0.00435
 C. 4.35
 D. 0.23


4AE 5.40 A
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,800 ohms?

 A. 1.84
 B. 0.543
 C. 54.3
 D. 23


4AE 6.1  A
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms?

 A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current


4AE 6.2  B
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms?

 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current


4AE 6.3  C
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250
ohms?

 A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


4AE 6.4  B
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms?

 A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


4AE 6.5  D
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms?

 A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


4AE 6.6  B
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms?

 A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 B. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 C. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current


4AE 6.7  A
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms?

 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current


4AE 6.8  D
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500
ohms?

 A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current


4AE 6.9  D
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms?

 A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current


4AE 6.10 C
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the
circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms?

 A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current


4AE 7.1  A
Why would the rate at which electrical energy is used in a circuit be less than
the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current?

 A. Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between the
    current and voltage
 B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit
 C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit
 D. Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the
    current and voltage


4AE 7.2  A
In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the
true power be determined?

 A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
 B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
 C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
 D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current


4AE 7.3  C
What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?

 A. 1.414
 B. 0.866
 C. 0.5
 D. 1.73


4AE 7.4  D
What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?

 A. 0.866
 B. 1.0
 C. 0.5
 D. 0.707


4AE 7.5  C
What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?

 A. 1.73
 B. 0.5
 C. 0.866
 D. 0.577


4AE 7.6  B
How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2
when the input is 100-Vac and 4-amperes is being drawn?

 A. 400 watts
 B. 80 watts
 C. 2000 watts
 D. 50 watts


4AE 7.7  D
How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6
when the input is 200-Vac and 5-amperes is being drawn?

 A. 200 watts
 B. 1000 watts
 C. 1600 watts
 D. 600 watts


4AE 8.1  B
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50
watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?

 A. 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.2  C
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50
watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?

 A. 300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.3  D
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75
watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?

 A. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.4  A
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75
watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?

 A. 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.5  D
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with
100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?

 A. 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.6  B
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with
100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?

 A. 800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.7  C
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with
l20 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?

 A. 60l watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.8  D
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with
150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?

 A. 946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.9  A
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with
200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?

 A. 317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 8.10 D
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with
200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?

 A. 252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 B. 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 C. 632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
 D. 159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole


4AE 9.1  B
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
 C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts


4AE 9.2  C
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
 B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
 D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts


4AE 9.3  C
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
 C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
 D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts


4AE 9.4  D
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
 B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
 C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
 D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts


4AE 9.5  C
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
 B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
 C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
 D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts


4AE 9.6  A
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
 B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
 C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
 D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts


4AE 9.7  B
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
 C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts


4AE 9.8  B
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
 B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
 C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts


4AE 9.9  C
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts


4AE 9.10 C
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?

 A. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
 C. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
 D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts


4AF 1.1  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier?


4AF 1.2  A
Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes?

 A. Junction and point contact
 B. Electrolytic and junction
 C. Electrolytic and point contact
 D. Vacuum and point contact


4AF 1.3  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode?


4AF 1.4  C
What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes?

 A. Hot carrier and tunnel
 B. Varactor and rectifying
 C. Voltage regulator and voltage reference
 D. Forward and reversed biased


4AF 1.5  B
What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?

 A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
 B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
 C. A negative resistance region
 D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage


4AF 1.6  A
What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes?

 A. 2.4 volts to 200 volts
 B. 1.2 volts to 7 volts
 C. 3 volts to 2000 volts
 D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts


4AF 1.7  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode?


4AF 1.8  C
What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?

 A. A high forward resistance
 B. A very high PIV
 C. A negative resistance region
 D. A high forward current rating


4AF 1.9  C
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

 A. Point contact diodes
 B. Zener diodes
 C. Tunnel diodes
 D. Junction diodes


4AF 1.10 Y
What is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?


4AF 1.11 A
What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage
applied to its terminals varies?

 A. A varactor diode
 B. A tunnel diode
 C. A silicon-controlled rectifier
 D. A Zener diode


4AF 1.12 B
What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode?

 A. It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current
 B. Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage
 C. It has a negative resistance region
 D. It has a very high PIV


4AF 1.13 D
What is a common use of a varactor diode?

 A. As a constant current source
 B. As a constant voltage source
 C. As a voltage controlled inductance
 D. As a voltage controlled capacitance


4AF 1.14 D
What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

 A. As balanced mixers in SSB generation
 B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
 C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
 D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors


4AF 1.15 B
What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?

 A. The peak inverse voltage
 B. The junction temperature
 C. The forward voltage
 D. The back EMF


4AF 1.16 D
How are junction diodes rated?

 A. Maximum forward current and capacitance
 B. Maximum reverse current and PIV
 C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance
 D. Maximum forward current and PIV


4AF 1.17 C
What is a common use for point contact diodes?

 A. As a constant current source
 B. As a constant voltage source
 C. As an RF detector
 D. As a high voltage rectifier


4AF 1.18 D
What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small
semi-conductor die?

 A. Zener diode
 B. Varactor diode
 C. Junction diode
 D. Point contact diode


4AF 1.19 C
What is one common use for PIN diodes?

 A. As a constant current source
 B. As a constant voltage source
 C. As an RF switch
 D. As a high voltage rectifier


4AF 1.20 C
What special type of diode is often used in RF switches, attenuators, and
various types of phase shifting devices?

 A. Tunnel diodes
 B. Varactor diodes
 C. PIN diodes
 D. Junction diodes


4AF 2.1  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?


4AF 2.2  Y
What is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor?


4AF 2.3  B
What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?

 A. Cathode, plate and grid
 B. Base, collector and emitter
 C. Gate, source and sink
 D. Input, output and ground


4AF 2.4  C
What is the meaning of the term ALPHA with regard to bipolar transistors?

 A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
 B. The change of base current with respect to collector current
 C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
 D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current


4AF 2.5  C
What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector current to
a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor?

 A. Gamma
 B. Epsilon
 C. Alpha
 D. Beta


4AF 2.6  A
What is the meaning of the term BETA with regard to bipolar transistors?

 A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
 B. The change of base current with respect to emitter current
 C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
 D. The change in base current with respect to gate current


4AF 2.7  B
What is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector
current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor?

 A. Alpha
 B. Beta
 C. Gamma
 D. Delta


4AF 2.8  B
What is the meaning of the term ALPHA CUTOFF FREQUENCY with regard to bipolar
transistors?

 A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter
    configuration
 B. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base
    configuration
 C. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base
    configuration
 D. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter
    configuration


4AF 2.9  B
What is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded base
current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a
transistor?

 A. Corner frequency
 B. Alpha cutoff frequency
 C. Beta cutoff frequency
 D. Alpha rejection frequency


4AF 2.10 B
What is the meaning of the term BETA CUTOFF FREQUENCY with regard to a bipolar
transistor?

 A. That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to
    0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
 B. That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased
    to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
 C. That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has
    decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
 D. That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to
    0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor


4AF 2.11 A
What is the meaning of the term TRANSITION REGION with regard to a transistor?

 A. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
 B. The area of maximum P-type charge
 C. The area of maximum N-type charge
 D. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type material


4AF 2.12 A
What does it mean for a transistor to be FULLY SATURATED?

 A. The collector current is at its maximum value
 B. The collector current is at its minimum value
 C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value
 D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value


4AF 2.13 C
What does it mean for a transistor to be CUT OFF?

 A. There is no base current
 B. The transistor is at its operating point
 C. No current flows from emitter to collector
 D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector


4AF 2.14 Y
What is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor?


4AF 2.15 A
What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?

 A. Base 1, base 2 and emitter
 B. Gate, cathode and anode
 C. Gate, base 1 and base 2
 D. Gate, source and sink


4AF 2.16 A
For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line should a solid-state
power amplifier be operated?

 A. Just below the saturation point
 B. Just above the saturation point
 C. At the saturation point
 D. At 1.414 times the saturation point


4AF 2.17 B
What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic
and non-metallic characteristics?

 A. Silicon and gold
 B. Silicon and germanium
 C. Galena and germanium
 D. Galena and bismuth


4AF 3.1  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier?


4AF 3.2  A
What are the three terminals of an SCR?

 A. Anode, cathode and gate
 B. Gate, source and sink
 C. Base, collector and emitter
 D. Gate, base 1 and base 2


4AF 3.3  A
What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR?

 A. Conducting and nonconducting
 B. Oscillating and quiescent
 C. Forward conducting and reverse conducting
 D. NPN conduction and PNP conduction


4AF 3.4  A
When an SCR is in the TRIGGERED or ON condition, its electrical characteristics
are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode
and anode)?

 A. The junction diode
 B. The tunnel diode
 C. The hot-carrier diode
 D. The varactor diode


4AF 3.5  D
Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical characteristics
similar to a foward-biased silicon rectifier?

 A. During a switching transition
 B. When it is used as a detector
 C. When it is gated "off"
 D. When it is gated "on"


4AF 3.6  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC?


4AF 3.7  A
What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in
parallel with a common gate terminal?

 A. TRIAC
 B. Bilateral SCR
 C. Unijunction transistor
 D. Field effect transistor


4AF 3.8  B
What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?

 A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2
 B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
 C. Base, emitter and collector
 D. Gate, source and sink


4AF 4.1  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?


4AF 4.2  C
What is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting diode?

 A. 60 volts and 20 mA
 B. 5 volts and 50 mA
 C. 1.7 volts and 20 mA
 D. 0.7 volts and 60 mA


4AF 4.3  B
What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?

 A. Reverse bias
 B. Forward bias
 C. Zero bias
 D. Inductive bias


4AF 4.4  A
What are the advantages of using an LED?

 A. Low power consumption and long life
 B. High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption
 C. High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement
 D. A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source


4AF 4.5  D
What colors are available in LEDs?

 A. Yellow, blue, red and brown
 B. Red, violet, yellow and peach
 C. Violet, blue, orange and red
 D. Red, green, orange and yellow


4AF 4.6  Y
What is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp?


4AF 4.7  B
What type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio work?

 A. NE-1
 B. NE-2
 C. NE-3
 D. NE-4


4AF 4.8  A
What is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp?

 A. Approximately 67 volts
 B. Approximately 5 volts
 C. Approximately 5.6 volts
 D. Approximately 110 volts


4AF 4.9  D
What is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp?

 A. Approximately 110-V AC RMS
 B. Approximately 5-V AC RMS
 C. Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS
 D. Approximately 48-V AC RMS


4AF 4.10 D
How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF?

 A. A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF
 B. A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF
 C. A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency RF
 D. A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF


4AF 5.1  B
What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a
single-sideband phone emission?

 A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
 B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
 C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
 D. 15 kHz at -6 dB


4AF 5.2  C
What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a
double-sideband phone emission?

 A. 1 kHz at -6 dB
 B. 500 Hz at -6 dB
 C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
 D. 15 kHz at -6 dB


4AF 5.3  D
What is a crystal lattice filter?

 A. A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals
 B. An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals
 C. A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz
    crystals
 D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz
    crystals


4AF 5.4  D
What technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance crystal
lattice filters?

 A. Splitting and tumbling
 B. Tumbling and grinding
 C. Etching and splitting
 D. Etching and grinding


4AF 5.5  A
What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice filter?

 A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
 B. The center frequency chosen for the filter
 C. The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter
 D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter


4AG 1.1  D
What is a LINEAR ELECTRONIC VOLTAGE REGULATOR?

 A. A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output
 B. A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off" state
    to the "on" state
 C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the
    duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
 D. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in
    direct proportion to the line voltage or load current


4AG 1.2  C
What is a SWITCHING ELECTRONIC VOLTAGE REGULATOR?

 A. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in
    direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
 B. A regulator that provides more than one output voltage
 C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the
    duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
 D. A regulator that gives a ramp voltage at its output


4AG 1.3  A
What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage
regulator?

 A. A Zener diode
 B. A tunnel diode
 C. An SCR
 D. A varactor diode


4AG 1.4  B
What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient
utilization of the primary power source?

 A. A constant current source
 B. A series regulator
 C. A shunt regulator
 D. A shunt current source


4AG 1.5  D
What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications where the load on
the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant?

 A. A constant current source
 B. A series regulator
 C. A shunt current source
 D. A shunt regulator


4AG 1.6  C
To obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage
of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator?

 A. Approximately 2.0 volts
 B. Approximately 3.0 volts
 C. Approximately 6.0 volts
 D. Approximately 10.0 volts


4AG 1.7  A
What is the meaning of the term REMOTE SENSING with regard to a linear voltage
regulator?

 A. The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to the
    load
 B. Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops
 C. The load connection is made outside the feedback loop
 D. The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage


4AG 1.8  D
What is a THREE-TERMINAL REGULATOR?

 A. A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current
 B. A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current
 C. A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors
 D. A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing
    resistors and transistors, and a pass element


4AG 1.9  B
What are the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator?

 A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage
 B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage
 C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum
    output voltage
 D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum
    output current


4AG 2.1  B
What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier?

 A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle
 B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle
 C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the
    signal cycle
 D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle


4AG 2.2  A
What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout
the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region?

 A. Class A
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class D


4AG 2.3  D
What is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B amplifier?

 A. Output for the entire input signal cycle
 B. Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the
    input signal cycle
 C. Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
 D. Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle


4AG 2.4  B
What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the output
essentially in 180 degree pulses?

 A. Class A
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class D


4AG 2.5  A
What is a CLASS AB AMPLIFIER?

 A. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
    of the signal input cycle
 B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
 C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
 D. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle


4AG 2.6  A
What is the distinguishing feature of a CLASS C AMPLIFIER?

 A. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
 B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
 C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
 D. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
    of the input signal cycle


4AG 2.7  C
What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond
cutoff?

 A. Class A
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class AB


4AG 2.8  C
Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?

 A. Class A
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class AB


4AG 2.9  A
Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?

 A. Class A
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class AB


4AG 2.10 D
Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but
less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?

 A. Class A
 B. Class B
 C. Class C
 D. Class AB


4AG 3.1  B
What is an L-NETWORK?

 A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors
 B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
 C. A network used to generate a leading phase angle
 D. A network used to generate a lagging phase angle


4AG 3.2  D
What is a PI-NETWORK?

 A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
 B. A Power Incidence network
 C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
 D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors
    and one capacitor


4AG 3.3  B
What is a PI-L-NETWORK?

 A. A Phase Inverter Load network
 B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors
 C. A network with only three discrete parts
 D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground


4AG 3.4  D
Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest harmonic suppression?

 A. L-network
 B. Pi-network
 C. Inverse L-network
 D. Pi-L-network


4AG 3.5  C
What are the three most commonly used networks to accomplish a match between an
amplifying device and a transmission line?

 A. M-network, pi-network and T-network
 B. T-network, M-network and Q-network
 C. L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network
 D. L-network, M-network and C-network


4AG 3.6  D
How are networks able to transform one impedance to another?

 A. Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load
 B. The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the
    resistive part of an impedance
 C. The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive
    part of an impedance
 D. The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance and
    change the value of the resistive part of an impedance


4AG 3.7  B
Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio?

 A. L-network
 B. Pi-network
 C. Constant-K
 D. Constant-M


4AG 3.8  A
Why is the L-network of limited utility in impedance matching?

 A. It matches a small impedance range
 B. It has limited power handling capabilities
 C. It is thermally unstable
 D. It is prone to self resonance


4AG 3.9  D
What is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a pi-network for
impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type
transmitter and a multiband antenna?

 A. Greater transformation range
 B. Higher efficiency
 C. Lower losses
 D. Greater harmonic suppression


4AG 3.10 C
Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?

 A. L-network
 B. Pi-network
 C. Pi-L-network
 D. Inverse-Pi network


4AG 4.1  A
What are the three general groupings of filters?

 A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
 B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive
 C. Audio, radio and capacitive
 D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce


4AG 4.2  C
What is a CONSTANT-K FILTER?

 A. A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant
 B. A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of
    frequencies
 C. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a
    constant for all frequencies
 D. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth


4AG 4.3  A
What is an advantage of a constant-k filter?

 A. It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from the
    passband
 B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies
 C. It uses elliptic functions
 D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied


4AG 4.4  D
What is an M-DERIVED FILTER?

 A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth
 B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a
    constant for all frequencies
 C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M"
 D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near
    cutoff for a constant-k filter


4AG 4.5  C
What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?

 A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a
    constant for all frequencies
 B. It only requires capacitors
 C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband
 D. It requires only inductors


4AG 4.6  B
What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter?

 A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband
 B. It allows ripple in the passband
 C. It only requires inductors
 D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a
    constant for all frequencies


4AG 4.7  B
When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k
filter?

 A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency
 B. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close
    to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter
 C. When the number of components must be minimized
 D. When high power levels must be filtered


4AG 5.1  C
What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

 A. It must have a gain of less than 1
 B. It must be neutralized
 C. It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses
 D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input


4AG 5.2  D
What are three major oscillator circuits often used in amateur radio equipment?

 A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
 B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
 C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
 D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce


4AG 5.3  D
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator?

 A. Through a neutralizing capacitor
 B. Through a capacitive divider
 C. Through link coupling
 D. Through a tapped coil


4AG 5.4  C
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator?

 A. Through a tapped coil
 B. Through link coupling
 C. Through a capacitive divider
 D. Through a neutralizing capacitor


4AG 5.5  D
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator?

 A. Through a tapped coil
 B. Through link coupling
 C. Through a capacitive divider
 D. Through capacitive coupling


4AG 5.6  D
Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment
utilizes a quartz crystal?

 A. Negative feedback
 B. Hartley
 C. Colpitts
 D. Pierce


4AG 5.7  A
What is the PIEZOELECTRIC EFFECT?

 A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage
 B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic
    field
 C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
 D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light


4AG 5.8  B
What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?

 A. It is easy to neutralize
 B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
 C. It can be tuned over a wide range
 D. It has a high output power


4AG 5.9  B
Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO?

 A. Pierce
 B. Colpitts
 C. Hartley
 D. Negative feedback


4AG 5.10 C
Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO?

 A. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
 B. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
 C. It is stable
 D. It has high output power


4AG 6.1  D
What is meant by the term MODULATION?

 A. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is
    reached
 B. Carrier rejection through phase nulling
 C. A linear amplification mode
 D. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier


4AG 6.2  B
How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced?

 A. With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
 B. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
 C. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
 D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator


4AG 6.3  C
What is a REACTANCE MODULATOR?

 A. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM
    signals
 B. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM
    signals
 C. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM
    signals
 D. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM
    signals


4AG 6.4  B
What is a BALANCED MODULATOR?

 A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation
 B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal
 C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal
 D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal


4AG 6.5  D
How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?

 A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
 B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
 C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
 D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter


4AG 6.6  D
How can a double-sideband phone signal be generated?

 A. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter
 B. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
 C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator
 D. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier


4AG 7.1  A
How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?

                   RF power out
 A. Efficiency = ----------------- X 100%
                   DC power in

                   RF power in
 B. Efficiency = ----------------- X 100%
                   RF power out

                   RF power in
 C. Efficiency = ----------------- X 100%
                   DC power in

                   DC power in
D. Efficiency = ----------------- X 100%
                   RF power in


4AG 7.2  B
For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class C amplifier, what
should the plate-load resistance be with 1500-volts at the plate and
500-milliamperes plate current?

 A. 2000 ohms
 B. 1500 ohms
 C. 4800 ohms
 D. 480 ohms


4AG 7.3  C
For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class B amplifier, what
should the plate-load resistance be with 800-volts at the plate and
75-milliamperes plate current?

 A. 679.4 ohms
 B. 60 ohms
 C. 6794 ohms
 D. 10,667 ohms


4AG 7.4  A
For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class A amplifier, what
should the plate-load resistance be with 250-volts at the plate and
25-milliamperes plate current?

 A. 7692 ohms
 B. 3250 ohms
 C. 325 ohms
 D. 769.2 ohms


4AG 7.5  B
For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what should the
load resistance be with 12-volts at the collector and 5 watts power output?

 A. 100.3 ohms
 B. 14.4 ohms
 C. 10.3 ohms
 D. 144 ohms


4AG 7.6  B
What is the FLYWHEEL EFFECT?

 A. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter
    is turned off
 B. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
 C. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified ac
 D. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops
    through the ionosphere


4AG 7.7  C
How can a power amplifier be neutralized?

 A. By increasing the grid drive
 B. By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input
 C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input
 D. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the output


4AG 7.8  B
What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to
an acceptable level?

 A. Approximately 120
 B. Approximately 12
 C. Approximately 1200
 D. Approximately 1.2


4AG 7.9  C
How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier?

 A. By tuning for maximum SWR
 B. By tuning for maximum power output
 C. By neutralization
 D. By tuning the output


4AG 7.10 D
What is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier having an output pi-network?

 A. Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the
    plate current with the tuning capacitor
 B. Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor and
    dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
 C. Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the
    plate current with the loading capacitor
 D. Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor and
    dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor


4AG 8.1  B
What is the process of DETECTION?

 A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to
    make an S-meter operational
 B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal
 C. The modulation of a carrier
 D. The mixing of noise with the received signal


4AG 8.2  A
What is the principle of detection in a diode detector?

 A. Rectification and filtering of RF
 B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage
 C. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode
 D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency


4AG 8.3  C
What is a PRODUCT DETECTOR?

 A. A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer
 B. A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies
 C. A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier
 D. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products


4AG 8.4  B
How are FM-phone signals detected?

 A. By a balanced modulator
 B. By a frequency discriminator
 C. By a product detector
 D. By a phase splitter


4AG 8.5  A
What is a FREQUENCY DISCRIMINATOR?

 A. A circuit for detecting FM signals
 B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
 C. An automatic bandswitching circuit
 D. An FM generator


4AG 8.6  D
What is the MIXING PROCESS?

 A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
 B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation
 C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation
 D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies


4AG 8.7  C
What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer
circuit?

 A. Two and four times the original frequency
 B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
 C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
 D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency


4AG 8.8  B
What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process?

 A. Automatic squelching and increased selectivity
 B. Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design
 C. Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching
 D. Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity


4AG 8.9  A
What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the
mixer circuit?

 A. Spurious mixer products are generated
 B. Mixer blanking occurs
 C. Automatic limiting occurs
 D. A beat frequency is generated


4AG 9.1  B
How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?

 A. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation
 B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in
    the first mixer stage
 C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer
    stage
 D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage


4AG 9.2  C
Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient gain to
allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage?

 A. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated
 B. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
 C. To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
 D. To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator


4AG 9.3  C
What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?

 A. To provide most of the receiver gain
 B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
 C. To improve the receiver's noise figure
 D. To develop the AGC voltage


4AG 9.4  A
What is an I-F AMPLIFIER STAGE?

 A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier
 B. A receiver demodulator
 C. A receiver filter
 D. A buffer oscillator


4AG 9.5  C
What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?

 A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference
 B. Interference to other services
 C. Image rejection and selectivity
 D. Noise figure and distortion


4AG 9.6  D
What is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier stage in a receiver?

 A. Noise figure performance
 B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion
 C. Dynamic response
 D. Selectivity


4AG 9.7  B
What is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier stage in a receiver?

 A. Dynamic response
 B. Gain
 C. Noise figure performance
 D. Bypass undesired signals


4AG 10.1 C
What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10?

 A. Switching voltage regulator
 B. Linear voltage regulator
 C. Common emitter amplifier
 D. Emitter follower amplifier


4AG 10.2 B
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

 A. Load resistors
 B. Fixed bias
 C. Self bias
 D. Feedback


4AG 10.3 D
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1?

 A. Decoupling
 B. Output coupling
 C. Self bias
 D. Input coupling


4AG 10.4 D
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3?

 A. AC feedback
 B. Input coupling
 C. Power supply decoupling
 D. Emitter bypass


4AG 10.5 D
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3?

 A. Fixed bias
 B. Emitter bypass
 C. Output load resistor
 D. Self bias


4AG 11.1 B
What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11?

 A. High-gain amplifier
 B. Common-collector amplifier
 C. Linear voltage regulator
 D. Grounded-emitter amplifier


4AG 11.2 A
In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R?

 A. Emitter load
 B. Fixed bias
 C. Collector load
 D. Voltage regulation


4AG 11.3 D
In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1?

 A. Input coupling
 B. Output coupling
 C. Emitter bypass
 D. Collector bypass


4AG 11.4 A
In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2?

 A. Output coupling
 B. Emitter bypass
 C. Input coupling
 D. Hum filtering


4AG 12.1 C
What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. Switching voltage regulator
 B. Grounded emitter amplifier
 C. Linear voltage regulator
 D. Emitter follower


4AG 12.2 B
What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. Line voltage stabilization
 B. Voltage reference
 C. Peak clipping
 D. Hum filtering


4AG 12.3  C
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. It increases the output ripple
 B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
 C. It increases the current handling capability
 D. It provides D1 with current


4AG 12.4  D
What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. It resonates at the ripple frequency
 B. It provides fixed bias for Q1
 C. It decouples the output
 D. It filters the supply voltage


4AG 12.5  A
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. It bypasses hum around D1
 B. It is a brute force filter for the output
 C. To self resonate at the hum frequency
 D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1


4AG 12.6  A
What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. It prevents self-oscillation
 B. It provides brute force filtering of the output
 C. It provides fixed bias for Q1
 D. It clips the peaks of the ripple


4AG 12.7  C
What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source
 B. It couples hum to D1
 C. It supplies current to D1
 D. It bypasses hum around D1


4AG 12.8  D
What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?

 A. It provides fixed bias for Q1
 B. It provides fixed bias for D1
 C. It decouples hum from D1
 D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1


4AG 13.1  C
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry inductor to
resonate in the 80-meter wavelength band?

 A. 150 picofarads
 B. 200 picofarads
 C. 100 picofarads
 D. 100 microfarads


4AG 13.2  D
What value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad capacitor to
resonate in the 40-meter wavelength band?

 A. 200 microhenrys
 B. 150 microhenrys
 C. 5 millihenrys
 D. 5 microhenrys


4AG 13.3  A
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor to
resonate in the 20-meter wavelength band?

 A. 64 picofarads
 B. 6 picofarads
 C. 12 picofarads
 D. 88 microfarads


4AG 13.4  C
What value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor to
resonate in the 15-meter wavelength band?

 A. 2 microhenrys
 B. 30 microhenrys
 C. 4 microhenrys
 D. 15 microhenrys


4AG 13.5  A
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry inductor to
resonate in the 160-meter wavelength band?

 A. 78 picofarads
 B. 25 picofarads
 C. 405 picofarads
 D. 40.5 microfarads


4AH 1.1  A
What is emission A3C?

 A. Facsimile
 B. RTTY
 C. ATV
 D. Slow Scan TV


4AH 1.2  B
What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is
modulated by a facsimile signal?

 A. A3F
 B. A3C
 C. F3F
 D. F3C


4AH 1.3  C
What is FACSIMILE?

 A. The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy
 B. The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to form a
    picture
 C. The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means
 D. The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means


4AH 1.4  D
What is emission F3C?

 A. Voice transmission
 B. Slow Scan TV
 C. RTTY
 D. Facsimile


4AH 1.5  A
What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is
modulated by a facsimile signal?

 A. F3C
 B. A3C
 C. F3F
 D. A3F


4AH 1.6  B
What is emission A3F?

 A. RTTY
 B. Television
 C. SSB
 D. Modulated CW


4AH 1.7  B
What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is
modulated by a television signal?

 A. F3F
 B. A3F
 C. A3C
 D. F3C


4AH 1.8  D
What is emission F3F?

 A. Modulated CW
 B. Facsimile
 C. RTTY
 D. Television


4AH 1.9  C
What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is
modulated by a television signal?

 A. A3F
 B. A3C
 C. F3F
 D. F3C


4AH 1.10 D
What type of emission results when a single sideband transmitter is used for
slow-scan television?

 A. J3A
 B. F3F
 C. A3F
 D. J3F


4AH 2.1  C
How can an FM-phone signal be produced?

 A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier
 B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier
 C. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
 D. By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator


4AH 2.2  D
How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced?

 A. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
 B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit
 C. By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop
 D. By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier


4AH 2.3  A
How can a single-sideband phone signal be produced?

 A. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
    then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering
 B. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
    then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning
 C. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
    then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing
 D. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
    then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization


4AH 3.1  B
What is meant by the term DEVIATION RATIO?

 A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier
    frequency
 B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
    modulating frequency
 C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating
    frequency
 D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio
    modulating frequency


4AH 3.2  C
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the
carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?

 A. Deviation index
 B. Modulation index
 C. Deviation ratio
 D. Modulation ratio


4AH 3.3  D
What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency
swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?

 A. 60
 B. 0.16
 C. 0.6
 D. 1.66


4AH 3.4  A
What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency
swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5
kHz?

 A. 2.14
 B. 0.214
 C. 0.47
 D. 47


4AH 4.1  B
What is meant by the term MODULATION INDEX?

 A. The processor index
 B. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the
    modulating frequency
 C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio
 D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
    modulating frequency


4AH 4.2  D
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation
of the frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency?

 A. FM compressibility
 B. Quieting index
 C. Percentage of modulation
 D. Modulation index


4AH 4.3  D
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with the
modulated frequency?

 A. The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the
    modulated frequency) increases
 B. The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the
    modulated frequency) increases
 C. The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier
    frequency (the modulated frequency)
 D. The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency (the
    modulated frequency)


4AH 4.4  A
In an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either
side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the
modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

 A. 3
 B. 0.3
 C. 3000
 D. 1000


4AH 4.5  B
What is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing an
instantaneous carrier deviation of 6-kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating
frequency?

 A. 6000
 B. 3
 C. 2000
 D. 1/3


4AH 5.1  C
What are ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES?

 A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
 B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
 C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right
    angles to each other
 D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other


4AH 5.2  D
What is a WAVE FRONT?

 A. A voltage pulse in a conductor
 B. A current pulse in a conductor
 C. A voltage pulse across a resistor
 D. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave


4AH 5.3  A
At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?

 A. Approximately 300 million meters per second
 B. Approximately 468 million meters per second
 C. Approximately 186,300 feet per second
 D. Approximately 300 million miles per second


4AH 5.4  B
What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic
wave?

 A. An electric field and a current field
 B. An electric field and a magnetic field
 C. An electric field and a voltage field
 D. A voltage field and a current field


4AH 5.5  C
Why do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great
extent?

 A. The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator
 B. The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield
 C. Because of Eddy currents
 D. The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field


4AH 6.1  D
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

 A. The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned
 B. Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index
 C. The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to its
    source
 D. Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and magnetic
    fields


4AH 6.2  A
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as HORIZONTALLY POLARIZED?

 A. The electric field is parallel to the earth
 B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth
 C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
 D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical


4AH 6.3  B
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having CIRCULAR
POLARIZATION?

 A. The electric field is bent into a circular shape
 B. The electric field rotates
 C. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth
 D. The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna


4AH 6.4  C
When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is
the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?

 A. Circular
 B. Horizontal
 C. Vertical
 D. Elliptical


4AH 6.5  D
When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the electromagnetic wave?

 A. Circular
 B. Horizontal
 C. Elliptical
 D. Vertical


4AH 6.6  A
When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is
the polarization of the electromagnetic field?

 A. Horizontal
 B. Circular
 C. Elliptical
 D. Vertical


4AH 6.7  B
When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the electromagnetic wave?

 A. Vertical
 B. Horizontal
 C. Circular
 D. Elliptical


4AH 7.1  B
What is a SINE WAVE?

 A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave
 B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a
    point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
 C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function
 D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner


4AH 7.2  C
How many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle?

 A. 180 times
 B. 4 times
 C. 2 times
 D. 360 times


4AH 7.3  D
How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle?

 A. 90 degrees
 B. 270 degrees
 C. 180 degrees
 D. 360 degrees


4AH 7.4  A
What is the PERIOD of a wave?

 A. The time required to complete one cycle
 B. The number of degrees in one cycle
 C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle
 D. The amplitude of the wave


4AH 7.5  B
What is a SQUARE wave?

 A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle
 B. A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels
    and which remains an equal time at each level
 C. A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle
 D. A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal
    portions of the cycle time


4AH 7.6  C
What is a wave called which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage
levels and which remains an equal time at each level?

 A. A sine wave
 B. A cosine wave
 C. A square wave
 D. A rectangular wave


4AH 7.7  D
Which sine waves make up a square wave?

 A. 0.707 times the fundamental frequency
 B. The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics
 C. The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics
 D. The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics


4AH 7.8  A
What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all
the odd harmonics?

 A. Square wave
 B. Sine wave
 C. Cosine wave
 D. Tangent wave


4AH 7.9  B
What is a SAWTOOTH wave?

 A. A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time at
    each level
 B. A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or
    vice versa)
 C. A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle
 D. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a
    point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed


4AH 7.10 C
What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the
fall time (or vice versa)?

 A. A cosine wave
 B. A square wave
 C. A sawtooth wave
 D. A sine wave


4AH 7.11 D
Which sine waves make up a sawtooth wave?

 A. The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics
 B. The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics
 C. The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics
 D. The fundamental frequency and all harmonics


4AH 7.12 A
What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all
the harmonics?

 A. A sawtooth wave
 B. A square wave
 C. A sine wave
 D. A cosine wave


4AH 8.1  C
What is the meaning of the term ROOT MEAN SQUARE value of an AC voltage?

 A. The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of the
    peak AC voltage
 B. The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a
    given resistor as a peak AC voltage
 C. The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in
    a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value
 D. The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the
    average AC value


4AH 8.2  C
What is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that would cause the same
heating in a resistor as a certain value of AC voltage?

 A. Cosine voltage
 B. Power factor
 C. Root mean square
 D. Average voltage


4AH 8.3  D
What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of a complex
waveform?

 A. By using a grid dip meter
 B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
 C. By using an absorption wavemeter
 D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor


4AH 8.4  A
What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?

 A. 117-V AC
 B. 331-V AC
 C. 82.7-V AC
 D. 165.5-V AC


4AH 8.5  B
What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?

 A. 234 volts
 B. 165.5 volts
 C. 117 volts
 D. 331 volts


4AH 8.6  C
What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?

 A. 234 volts
 B. 117 volts
 C. 331 volts
 D. 165.5 volts


4AH 8.7  D
What is the RMS voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine wave?

 A. 233-V AC
 B. 330-V AC
 C. 58.3-V AC
 D. 117-V AC


4AH 8.8  A
What is the RMS value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

 A. 117-V AC
 B. 165-V AC
 C. 234-V AC
 D. 300-V AC


4AH 9.1  C
For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to average power during a
modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal?

 A. Approximately 1.0 to 1
 B. Approximately 25 to 1
 C. Approximately 2.5 to 1
 D. Approximately 100 to 1


4AH 9.2  C
In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power
ratio?

 A. The frequency of the modulating signal
 B. The degree of carrier suppression
 C. The speech characteristics
 D. The amplifier power


4AH 9.3  C
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in
an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts?

 A. Approximately 900 watts
 B. Approximately 1765 watts
 C. Approximately 2500 watts
 D. Approximately 3000 watts


4AH 9.4  B
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in
a RTTY transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts?

 A. Approximately 850 watts
 B. Approximately 1250 watts
 C. Approximately 1667 watts
 D. Approximately 2000 watts


4AH 9.5  D
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage
in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?

 A. Approximately 250 watts
 B. Approximately 600 watts
 C. Approximately 800 watts
 D. Approximately 1000 watts


4AH 10.1 D
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise
ratio in a 160-meter wavelength band receiver?

 A. In the detector
 B. Man-made noise
 C. In the receiver front end
 D. In the atmosphere


4AH 10.2 A
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise
ratio in a 2-meter wavelength band receiver?

 A. In the receiver front end
 B. Man-made noise
 C. In the atmosphere
 D. In the ionosphere


4AH 10.3 B
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise
ratio in a 1.25-meter wavelength band receiver?

 A. In the audio amplifier
 B. In the receiver front end
 C. In the ionosphere
 D. Man-made noise


4AH 10.4 C
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise
ratio in a 0.70-meter wavelength band receiver?

 A. In the atmosphere
 B. In the ionosphere
 C. In the receiver front end
 D. Man-made noise


4AI 1.1  A
What is meant by the term ANTENNA GAIN?

 A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna
    to that of another antenna
 B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the
    back direction
 C. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to
    the output power of the transmitter
 D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including
    any phasing lines present)


4AI 1.2  B
What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one
antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna?

 A. Effective radiated power
 B. Antenna gain
 C. Conversion gain
 D. Peak effective power


4AI 1.3  B
What is meant by the term ANTENNA BANDWIDTH?

 A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
 B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well
 C. The angle between the half-power radiation points
 D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of
    the elements


4AI 1.4  A
How can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be determined?

 A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3
    dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference
 B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes
    from the front and rear of the antenna
 C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure
    the angle between the lines
 D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes
    from the front and side of the antenna


4AI 2.1  C
What is a TRAP ANTENNA?

 A. An antenna for rejecting interfering signals
 B. A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions
 C. An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of the
    presence of parallel LC networks
 D. An antenna with a large capture area


4AI 2.2  D
What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?

 A. It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands
 B. It has high gain
 C. It minimizes harmonic radiation
 D. It may be used for multiband operation


4AI 2.3  A
What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna?

 A. It will radiate harmonics
 B. It can only be used for single band operation
 C. It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies
 D. It must be neutralized


4AI 2.4  B
What is the principle of a trap antenna?

 A. Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances
 B. The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna
 C. The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around the
    antenna "sees" a high impedance
 D. The traps increase the antenna gain


4AI 3.1 C
What is a parasitic element of an antenna?

 A. An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element
 B. An element dependent on the antenna structure for support
 C. An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather
    than from a transmission line
 D. A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy


4AI 3.2  D
How does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field?

 A. By the RF current received from a connected transmission line
 B. By interacting with the earth's magnetic field
 C. By altering the phase of the current on the driven element
 D. By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric field


4AI 3.3  A
How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam
antenna compare with that of the driven element?

 A. It is about 5% longer
 B. It is about 5% shorter
 C. It is twice as long
 D. It is one-half as long


4AI 3.4  B
How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna
compare with that of the driven element?

 A. It is about 5% longer
 B. It is about 5% shorter
 C. It is one-half as long
 D. It is twice as long


4AI 4.1  C
What is meant by the term RADIATION RESISTANCE for an antenna?

 A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
 B. The specific impedance of the antenna
 C. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power
    as that radiated from an antenna
 D. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals


4AI 4.2  D
What is the term used for an equivalent resistance which would dissipate the
same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna?

 A. Space resistance
 B. Loss resistance
 C. Transmission line loss
 D. Radiation resistance


4AI 4.3  A
Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important?

 A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances
    for maximum power transfer
 B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the
    near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
 C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side
    ratio of the antenna
 D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back
    ratio of the antenna


4AI 4.4  B
What are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?

 A. Transmission line length and height of antenna
 B. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the
    length/diameter ratio of the conductors
 C. It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant
 D. Sunspot activity and the time of day


4AI 5.1  C
What is a DRIVEN ELEMENT of an antenna?

 A. Always the rearmost element
 B. Always the forwardmost element
 C. The element fed by the transmission line
 D. The element connected to the rotator


4AI 5.2  B
What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam antenna?

 A. 1/4 wavelength
 B. 1/2 wavelength
 C. 3/4 wavelength
 D. 1 wavelength


4AI 5.3  A
What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a
transmitter through a transmission line?

 A. Driven element
 B. Director element
 C. Reflector element
 D. Parasitic element


4AI 6.1  B
What is meant by the term ANTENNA EFFICIENCY?

                   radiation resistance
 A. Efficiency = ------------------------ X 100%
                 transmission resistance

                   radiation resistance
 B. Efficiency = ----------------------- X 100%
                     total resistance

                     total resistance
 C. Efficiency = ----------------------- X 100%
                   radiation resistance

                 effective radiated power
 D. Efficiency = ------------------------ X 100%
                    transmitter output


4AI 6.2  C
What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the
total resistance of the system?

 A. Effective radiated power
 B. Radiation conversion loss
 C. Antenna efficiency
 D. Beamwidth


4AI 6.3  D
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

 A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
 B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
 C. Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance
 D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance


4AI 6.4  A
How can the antenna efficiency of a HF grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?

 A. By installing a good ground radial system
 B. By isolating the coax shield from ground
 C. By shortening the vertical
 D. By lengthening the vertical


4AI 6.5  B
Why does a halfwave antenna operate at very high efficiency?

 A. Because it is non-resonant
 B. Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation
    resistance
 C. Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power
 D. Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types
    of antennas


4AI 7.1  C
What is a FOLDED DIPOLE antenna?

 A. A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long
 B. A ground plane antenna
 C. A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength piece
    of wire
 D. A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the
    radiation resistance


4AI 7.2  D
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple
dipole antenna?

 A. It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth
 B. It is essentially the same
 C. It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole
 D. It is greater


4AI 7.3  A
What is the input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna?

 A. 300 ohms
 B. 72 ohms
 C. 50 ohms
 D. 450 ohms


4AI 8.1  D
What is the meaning of the term VELOCITY FACTOR of a transmission line?

 A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating
    impedance
 B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
 C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the
    velocity of light in a vacuum
 D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity
    of light in a vacuum


4AI 8.2  A
What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels
through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

 A. Velocity factor
 B. Characteristic impedance
 C. Surge impedance
 D. Standing wave ratio


4AI 8.3  B
What is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable?

 A. 2.70
 B. 0.66
 C. 0.30
 D. 0.10


4AI 8.4   C
What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?

 A. The termination impedance
 B. The line length
 C. Dielectrics in the line
 D. The center conductor resistivity


4AI 8.5   B
Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than
its electrical length?

 A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
 B. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
 C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
 D. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line


4AI 9.1   B
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which
is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

 A. 20 meters
 B. 3.51 meters
 C. 2.33 meters
 D. 0.25 meters


4AI 9.2   B
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which
is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

 A. 10.5 meters
 B. 6.88 meters
 C. 24 meters
 D. 50 meters


4AI 9.3   C
What is the physical length of a parallel antenna feedline which is
electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor
of 0.82.)

 A. 15 meters
 B. 24.3 meters
 C. 8.7 meters
 D. 70.8 meters


4AI 9.4   A
What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feedline at 3.65 MHz?
(assume a velocity factor of 0.80.)

 A. Electrical length times 0.8
 B. Electrical length divided by 0.8
 C. 80 meters
 D. 160 meters


4AI 10.1  A
In a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes?

 A. At the ends
 B. At the center
 C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
 D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end


4AI 10.2  B
In a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes?

 A. At the ends
 B. At the feed point
 C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
 D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end


4AI 10.3  C
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist
compared to the remainder of the antenna?

 A. Equal voltage and current
 B. Minimum voltage and maximum current
 C. Maximum voltage and minimum current
 D. Minimum voltage and minimum current


4AI 10.4  D
At the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of voltage and current exist
compared to the remainder of the antenna?

 A. Equal voltage and current
 B. Maximum voltage and minimum current
 C. Minimum voltage and minimum current
 D. Minimum voltage and maximum current


4AI 11.1  A
Why is the inductance required for a base loaded HF mobile antenna less than
that for an inductance placed further up the whip?

 A. The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base
 B. The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base
 C. The current is greater at the top
 D. The voltage is less at the top


4AI 11.2  B
What happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the
frequency of operation is lowered?

 A. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
 B. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
 C. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
 D. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases


4AI 11.3  C
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to
resistance?

 A. To swamp out harmonics
 B. To maximize losses
 C. To minimize losses
 D. To minimize the Q


4AI 11.4  D
Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna?

 A. To improve reception
 B. To lower the losses
 C. To lower the Q
 D. To tune out the capacitive reactance


4AI 12.1  A
For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to
minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?

 A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
 B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
 C. As close to the transmitter as possible
 D. At a voltage node


4AI 12.2  B
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use
of loading coils?

 A. It is increased
 B. It is decreased
 C. No change occurs
 D. It becomes flat


4AI 12.3  C
Why are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur stations?

 A. They are very broad banded
 B. They have high gain in all azimuthal directions
 C. They are the most efficient radiators
 D. They require no calculations


4AI 12.4  D
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

 A. Lower Q
 B. Greater structural strength
 C. Higher losses
 D. Improved radiation efficiency