Programmer 7500/MAX_PROGRAMMERS.iso/PROGRAMS/UTILS/HAMRADIO/HAMTECHS.ZIP/TEC.DAT

Text File | 1988-02-22 | 86.0 KB | 46 lines

# Subelement 3AA - Rules and Regulations (5 questions) 871121
01~A~3A-1.1
3A-1.1
What is the control point of an amateur station?

 A. The operating position of an Amateur Radio station where
    the control operator function is performed

 B. The operating position of any Amateur Radio station
    operating as a repeater user station

 C. The physical location of any Amateur Radio transmitter,
    even if it is operated by radio link from some other location

 D. The variable frequency oscillator (VFO) of the transmitter

01~B~3A-1.2
3A-1.2
What is the term for the operating position of an amateur
station where the control operator function is performed?

 A. The operating desk

 B. The control point

 C. The station location

 D. The manual control location

01~A~3A-2.1
3A-2.1
What is an amateur emergency communication?

 A. An Amateur Radio communication directly relating to the immediate
    safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property

 B. A communication with the manufacturer of the amateur's
    equipment in case of equipment failure

 C. The only type of communication allowed in the Amateur Radio Service

 D. A communication that must be left to the Public Safety
    Radio Services; e.g., police and fire officials

01~B~3A-2.2
3A-2.2
What is the term for an amateur radiocommunication directly related
to the immediate safety of life of an individual?

 A. Immediate safety communication

 B. Emergency communication

 C. Third-party communication

 D. Individual communication

01~A~3A-2.3
3A-2.3
What is the term for an amateur radiocommunication
directly related to the immediate protection of property?

 A. Emergency communication

 B. Immediate communication

 C. Property communication

 D. Priority traffic

01~D~3A-2.4
3A-2.4
Under what circumstances does the FCC declare that a
general state of communications emergency exists?

 A. When a declaration of war is received from Congress

 B. When the maximum usable frequency goes above 28 MHz

 C. When communications facilities in Washington, DC, are disrupted

 D. In the event of an emergency disrupting normally
    available communication facilities in any widespread area(s)

01~A~3A-2.5
3A-2.5
How does an amateur operator request the FCC to declare
that a general state of communications emergency exists?

 A. Communication with the FCC engineer-in-charge of the affected area

 B. Communication with the US senator or congressman for the area affected

 C. Communication with the local Emergency Coordinator

 D. Communication with the Chief of the FCC Private Radio Bureau

01~C~3A-2.6
3A-2.6
What type of instructions are included in an FCC
declaration of a general state of communications emergency?

 A. Designation of the areas affected and of organizations
    authorized to use radiocommunications in the affected area

 B. Designation of amateur frequency bands for use only by amateurs
    participating in emergency communications in the affected area,
    and complete suspension of Novice operating privileges for the
    duration of the emergency

 C. Designation of the areas affected and specification of
    the amateur frequency bands or segments of such bands for use
    only by amateurs participating in emergency communication within
    or with such affected area(s)

 D. Suspension of amateur rules regarding station
    identification and business communication

01~B~3A-2.7
3A-2.7
What should be done by the control operator of an amateur station which
has been designated by the FCC to assist in making known information
relating to a general state of communications emergency?

 A. The designated station shall act as an official liaison
    station with local news media and law-enforcement officials

 B. The designated station shall monitor the designated
    emergency communications frequencies and warn noncomplying
    stations of the state of emergency

 C. The designated station shall broadcast hourly bulletins
    from the FCC concerning the disaster situation

 D. The designated station shall coordinate the operation of
    all phone-patch traffic out of the designated area

01~A~3A-2.8
3A-2.8
During an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency, how must the
operation by, and with, amateur stations in the area concerned be conducted?

 A. All transmissions within all designated amateur communications bands other
    than communications relating directly to relief work, emergency service,
    or the establishment and maintenance of efficient Amateur Radio networks
    for the handling of such communications shall be suspended

 B. Operations shall be governed by part 97.93 of the FCC
    rules pertaining to emergency communications

 C. No amateur operation is permitted in the area during the
    duration of the declared emergency

 D. Operation by and with amateur stations in the area concerned shall be
    conducted in the manner the amateur concerned believes most effective to
    the speedy resolution of the emergency situation

02~C~3A-3.1
3A-3.1
Notwithstanding the numerical limitations in the FCC Rules,
how much transmitting power shall be used by an amateur station?

 A. There is no regulation other than the numerical limits

 B. The minimum power level required to achieve S9 signal reports

 C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication

 D. The maximum power available, as long as it is under the allowable limit

02~B~3A-3.6
3A-3.6
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station in beacon operation?

 A. 10 watts PEP output

 B. 100 watts PEP output

 C. 500 watts PEP output

 D. 1500 watts PEP output

02~D~3A-3.8
3A-3.8
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 146.52-MHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output

 B. 500 watts ERP

 C. 1000 watts dc input

 D. 1500 watts PEP output

02~B~3A-4.2
3A-4.2
How must a newly-upgraded Technician control operator with a Certificate of
Successful Completion of Examination identify the station while it is
transmitting on 146.34-MHz pending receipt of a new operator license?

 A. The new Technician may not operate on 146.34 until
    his/her new license arrives

 B. The licensee gives his/her call sign, followed by the word "temporary" and
    the identifier code shown on the certificate of successful completion

 C. No special form of identification is needed

 D. The licensee gives his/her call sign and states the
    location of the VE examination where he or she
    obtained the certificate of successful completion

02~B~3A-4.4
3A-4.4
Which language(s) must be used when making the station
identification by telephony?

 A. The language being used for the contact may be used if it is not English,
    providing the US has a third-party traffic agreement with that country

 B. English must be used for identification

 C. Any language may be used, if the country which uses that language
    is a member of the International Telecommunication Union

 D. The language being used for the contact must be used for
    identification purposes

02~C~3A-4.5
3A-4.5
What aid does the FCC recommend to assist in station
identification when using telephony?

 A. A speech compressor

 B. Q signals

 C. An internationally recognized phonetic alphabet

 D. Distinctive phonetics, made up by the operator and easy to remember

02~A~3A-4.6
3A-4.6
What emission mode may always be used for station
identification, regardless of the transmitting frequency?

 A. A1A

 B. F1B

 C. A2B

 D. A3E

02~A~3A-5.1
3A-5.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may a third-party
participate in radiocommunications from an amateur station?

 A. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules.  In addition,
    contacts may only be made with amateurs in the US and countries with which
    the US has a third-party traffic agreement

 B. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules only if
    contacts are made with amateurs in countries with which the US has no
    third-party traffic agreement

 C. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules.  In addition,
    the control operator must key the transmitter and make the station
    identification.

 D. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise
    the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules.  In addition,
    if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz, the control operator
    must transmit the call signs of both stations involved in the contact at
    10-minute intervals

02~C~3A-5.2
3A-5.2
Where must the control operator be situated when a third-party is
participating in radiocommunications from an amateur station?

 A. If a radio remote control is used, the control operator may be physically
    separated from the control point, when provisions are incorporated to shut
    off the transmitter by remote control

 B. If the control operator supervises the third party until he or she is
    satisfied of the competence of the third party, the control operator may
    leave the control point

 C. The control operator must stay at the control point for
    the entire time the third party is participating

 D. If the third party holds a valid radiotelegraph license
    issued by the FCC, no supervision is necessary

02~D~3A-5.3
3A-5.3
What must the control operator do while a third-party is
participating in radiocommunications?

 A. If the third party holds a valid commercial
    radiotelegraph license, no supervision is necessary

 B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the transmitting
    frequency on another receiver, to ensure that no interference
    is taking place

 C. If a radio control link is available, the control
    operator may leave the room

 D. The control operator must continuously monitor and supervise the
    radiocommunication to ensure compliance with the rules

02~B~3A-5.4
3A-5.4
Under what circumstances, if any, may a third-party assume
the duties of the control operator of an amateur station?

 A. If the third party holds a valid commercial
    radiotelegraph license, he or she may act as control operator

 B. Under no circumstances may a third party assume the
    duties of control operator

 C. During Field Day, the third party may act as control operator

 D. An Amateur Extra class licensee may designate a third party as control
    operator, if the station is operated above 450 MHz

03~D~3A-6.3
3A-6.3
What types of material compensation, if any, may be involved in third-party
traffic transmitted by an amateur station?

 A. Payment of an amount agreed upon by the amateur operator
    and the parties involved

 B. Assistance in maintenance of auxiliary station equipment

 C. Donation of amateur equipment to the control operator

 D. No compensation may be accepted

03~C~3A-6.4
3A-6.4
What types of business communications, if any, may be
transmitted by an amateur station on behalf of a third-party?

 A. Section 97.57 specifically prohibits business
    communications in the Amateur Service

 B. Business communications involving the sale of Amateur
    Radio equipment

 C. Business communications involving an emergency, as
    defined in Part 97

 D. Business communications aiding a broadcast station

03~D~3A-6.5
3A-6.5
When are third-party messages limited to those of a technical nature
relating to tests, and to remarks of a personal character for which,
by reason of their unimportance, recourse to the public
telecommunications service is not justified?

 A. Only when communicating with a person in a country with
    which the US does not share a third-party traffic agreement

 B. When communicating with a non-profit organization such as the ARRL

 C. When communicating with the FCC

 D. Communications between amateurs in different countries are always limited
    to those of a technical nature relating to tests and remarks of a personal
    nature for which, by reason of their unimportance, recourse to the public
    telecommunications service is not justified


03~B~3A-7.1
3A-7.1
What kinds of one-way communications by amateur stations
are not considered broadcasting?

 A. All types of one-way communications by amateurs are
    considered by the FCC as broadcasting

 B. Beacon operation, radio-control operation, emergency communications,
    information bulletins consisting solely of subject matter relating to
    Amateur Radio, roundtable discussions and code-practice transmissions

 C. Only code-practice transmissions conducted simultaneously
    on all available amateur bands below 30 MHz and conducted for
    more than 40 hours per week are not considered broadcasting

 D. Only actual emergency communications during a declared
    communications emergency are exempt

03~D~3A-7.2
3A-7.2
What is a one-way radiocommunication?

 A. A communication in which propagation at the frequency in
    use supports signal travel in only one direction

 B. A communication in which different emissions are used in each direction

 C. A communication in which an amateur station transmits to
    and receives from a station in a radio service other than amateur

 D. A transmission to which no on-the-air response is desired or expected

03~D~3A-7.3
3A-7.3
What kinds of one-way information bulletins may be
transmitted by amateur stations?

 A. NOAA weather bulletins

 B. Commuter traffic reports from local radio stations

 C. Regularly scheduled announcements concerning Amateur
    Radio equipment for sale or trade

 D. Bulletins consisting solely of information relating to Amateur Radio

03~C~3A-7.4
3A-7.4
What types of one-way amateur radiocommunications may be
transmitted by an amateur station?

 A. Beacon operation, radio control, code practice,
    retransmission of other services

 B. Beacon operation, radio control, transmitting an
    unmodulated carrier, NOAA weather bulletins

 C. Beacon operation, radio control, information bulletins consisting
    solely of information relating to Amateur Radio, code practice
    and emergency communications

 D. Beacon operation, emergency-drill-practice transmissions,
    automatic retransmission of NOAA weather transmissions, code practice

03~B~3A-8.1
3A-8.1
What are the HF privileges authorized to a Technician control operator?

 A. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when terrestrial
    station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside Region 2),
    14,100 to 14,150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,150 kHz, and 28,100 to 28,150 kHz only

 B. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when terrestrial
    station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside Region 2),
    21,100 to 21,200 kHz, and 28,100 to 28,500 kHz only

 C. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only

 D. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when terrestrial
    station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside Region 2),
    and 21,100 to 21,200 kHz only

03~C~3A-8.2
3A-8.2
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525-MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced only

 B. Extra, Advanced, General only

 C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only

 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice

03~B~3A-8.3
3A-8.3
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52-MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice

 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only

 C. Extra, Advanced, General only

 D. Extra, Advanced only

03~A~3A-8.4
3A-8.4
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50-MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice

 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only

 C. Extra, Advanced, General only

 D. Extra, Advanced only

03~B~3A-8.5
3A-8.5
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0-MHz?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice

 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only

 C. Extra, Advanced, General only

 D. Extra, Advanced only

03~B~3A-10.9
3A-10.9
On what frequencies within the 6 meter band may
emission F3E be transmitted?

 A. 50.0-54.0 MHz only

 B. 50.1-54.0 MHz only

 C. 51.0-54.0 MHz only

 D. 52.0-54.0 MHz only

03~A~3A-10.10
3A-10.10
On what frequencies within the 2 meter band may
emission F3F be transmitted?

 A. 144.1-148.0 MHz only

 B. 146.0-148.0 MHz only

 C. 144.0-148.0 MHz only

 D. 146.0-147.0 MHz only

04~D~3A-11.1
3A-11.1
What is the nearest to the band edge the transmitting
frequency should be set?

 A. 3 kHz for single sideband and 1 kHz for CW

 B. 1 kHz for single sideband and 3 kHz for CW

 C. 1.5 kHz for single sideband and 0.05 kHz for CW

 D. As near as the operator desires, providing that no
    sideband, harmonic, or spurious emission (in excess of that
    legally permitted) falls outside the band

04~C~3A-11.2
3A-11.2
When selecting the transmitting frequency, what allowance should be
made for sideband emissions resulting from keying or modulation?

 A. The sidebands must be adjacent to the authorized Amateur
    Radio frequency band in use

 B. The sidebands must be harmonically-related frequencies
    that fall outside of the Amateur Radio frequency band in use

 C. The sidebands must be confined within the authorized
    Amateur Radio frequency band occupied by the carrier

 D. The sidebands must fall outside of the Amateur Radio frequency band in
    use so as to prevent interference to other Amateur Radio stations

04~A~3A-12.1
3A-12.1
What is the maximum mean output power an amateur station
is permitted in orderto operate under the special rules
for radio control of remote model craft and vehicles?

 A. One watt

 B. One milliwatt

 C. Two watts

 D. Three watts

04~C~3A-12.2
3A-12.2
What information must be indicated on the writing affixed
to the transmitter in order to operate under the special rules
for radio control of remote model craft and vehicles?

 A. Station call sign

 B. Station call sign and operating times

 C. Station call sign and licensee's name and address

 D. Station call sign, class of license, and operating times

04~D~3A-12.3
3A-12.3
What are the station identification requirements for an
amateur station operated under the special rules for radio
control of remote model craft and vehicles?

 A. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of
    each transmission

 B. Once every ten minutes

 C. At the beginning and end of each transmission

 D. Station identification is not required

04~B~3A-12.4
3A-12.4
Where must the writing indicating the station call sign and the
licensee's name and address be affixed in order to operate under the
special rules for radio control of remote model craft and vehicles?

 A. It must be in the operator's possession

 B. It must be affixed to the transmitter

 C. It must be affixed to the craft or vehicle

 D. It must be filed with the nearest FCC Field Office

04~C~3A-13.3
3A-13.3
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an
emission F1B transmission between 28- and 50-MHz?

 A. 56 kilobauds

 B. 19.6 kilobauds

 C. 1200 bauds

 D. 300 bauds

04~B~3A-13.4
3A-13.4
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an
emission F1B transmission between 50- and 220-MHz?

 A. 56 kilobauds

 B. 19.6 kilobauds

 C. 1200 bauds

 D. 300 bauds

04~D~3A-13.5
3A-13.5
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an
emission F1B transmission above 220-MHz?

 A. 300 bauds

 B. 1200 bauds

 C. 19.6 kilobauds

 D. 56 kilobauds

04~C~3A-13.6
3A-13.6
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for
emission F1B when transmitted below 50-MHz?

 A. 100 Hz

 B. 500 Hz

 C. 1000 Hz

 D. 5000 Hz

04~C~3A-13.7
3A-13.7
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for
emission F1B when transmitted above 50-MHz?

 A. 100 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater

 B. 500 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater

 C. 1000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater

 D. 5000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater

04~A~3A-13.8
3A-13.8
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted an amateur station transmission
between 50- and 220-MHz using a non-standard digital code?

 A. 20 kHz

 B. 50 kHz

 C. 80 kHz

 D. 100 kHz

04~D~3A-13.9
3A-13.9
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted an amateur station transmission
between 220- and 902-MHz using a non-standard digital code?

 A. 20 kHz

 B. 50 kHz

 C. 80 kHz

 D. 100 kHz

04~D~3A-13.10
3A-13.10 What is the maximum bandwidth permitted an amateur station
transmission above 902-MHz using a non-standard digital code?

 A. 20 kHz

 B. 100 kHz

 C. 200 kHz, as defined by Section 97.66 (g)

 D. Any bandwidth, providing that the emission is in
    accordance with section 97.63 (b) and 97.73 (c)

05~A~3A-14.1
3A-14.1
What is meant by the term broadcasting?

 A. The dissemination of radio communications intended to be received
    by the public directly or by intermediary relay stations

 B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals
    emanating from any class of station other than amateur

 C. The transmission of any one-way radio communication,
    regardless of purpose or content

 D. Any one-way or two-way radio communication involving more
    than two stations

05~C~3A-14.2
3A-14.2
What classes of station may be automatically
retransmitted by an amateur station?

 A. FCC licensed commercial stations

 B. Federally or state-authorized Civil Defense stations

 C. Amateur Radio stations

 D. National Weather Service bulletin stations

05~B~3A-14.3
3A-14.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may a broadcast station
retransmit the signals from an amateur station?

 A. Under no circumstances

 B. When the amateur station is not used for any activity directly related
    to program production or newsgathering for broadcast purposes

 C. If the station rebroadcasting the signal feels that such
    action would benefit the public

 D. When no other forms of communication exist

05~D~3A-14.5
3A-14.5
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
retransmit a NOAA weather station broadcast?

 A. If the NOAA broadcast is taped and retransmitted later

 B. If a general state of communications emergency is
    declared by the FCC

 C. If permission is granted by NOAA for amateur
    retransmission of the broadcast

 D. Under no circumstances

05~C~3A-14.7
3A-14.7
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
be used for an activity related to program production or
news-gathering for broadcast purposes?

 A. The programs or news produced with the assistance of an
    amateur station must be taped for broadcast at a later time

 B. An amateur station may be used for newsgathering and
    program production only by National Public Radio

 C. Under no circumstances

 D. Programs or news produced with the assistance of an
    amateur station must mention the call sign of that station

05~D~3A-15.2
3A-15.2
Under what circumstances, if any, may singing be
transmitted by an amateur station?

 A. When the singing produces no dissonances or spurious emissions

 B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission

 C. Only above 1215 MHz

 D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service

05~B~3A-17.1
3A-17.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmit radiocommunications containing obscene words?

 A. Obscene words are permitted when they do not cause interference
    to any other radio communication or signal

 B. Obscene words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions

 C. Obscene words are permitted when they are not
    retransmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations

 D. Obscene words are permitted, but there is an unwritten
    rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air

05~D~3A-17.2
3A-17.2
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmit radiocommunications containing indecent words?

 A. Indecent words are permitted when they do not cause
    interference to any other radio communication or signal

 B. Indecent words are permitted when they are not retransmitted
    through repeater or auxiliary stations

 C. Indecent words are permitted, but there is an unwritten
    rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air

 D. Indecent words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions

05~C~3A-17.3
3A-17.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmit radiocommunications containing profane words?

 A. Profane words are permitted when they are not
    retransmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations

 B. Profane words are permitted, but there is an unwritten
    rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air

 C. Profane words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions

 D. Profane words are permitted when they do not cause
    interference to any other radio communication or signal

06~A~3B-1.1
3B-1.1
What is the meaning of: "Your report is five seven..."?

 A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong

 B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak

 C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty

 D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone

06~A~3B-1.2
3B-1.2
What is the meaning of: "Your report is three three..."?

 A. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and
    weak in strength

 B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees

 C. The contact is serial number thirty-three

 D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength

06~D~3B-1.3
3B-1.3
What is the meaning of: "Your report is five nine plus 20 dB..."?

 A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100

 B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher

 C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity

 D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels
    greater than strength 9

06~A~3B-1.6
3B-1.6
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on an
emission F3E transmitter?

 A. For proper deviation on modulation peaks

 B. For maximum, non-clipped amplitude on modulation peaks

 C. For moderate movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks

 D. For a dip in plate current

06~C~3B-1.7
3B-1.7
How is the call sign WE5TZD stated phonetically?

 A. Whiskey-Echo-Foxtrot-Tango-Zulu-Delta

 B. Washington-England-Five-Tokyo-Zanzibar-Denmark

 C. Whiskey-Echo-Five-Tango-Zulu-Delta

 D. Whiskey-Easy-Five-Tear-Zebra-Dog

06~A~3B-1.8
3B-1.8
How is the call sign KC4HRM stated phonetically?

 A. Kilo-Charlie-Four-Hotel-Romeo-Mike

 B. Kilowatt-Charlie-Four-Hotel-Roger-Mexico

 C. Kentucky-Canada-Four-Honolulu-Radio-Mexico

 D. King-Charlie-Foxtrot-Hotel-Roger-Mary

06~D~3B-1.9
3B-1.9
How is the call sign AF6PSQ stated phonetically?

 A. America-Florida-Six-Portugal-Spain-Quebec

 B. Adam-Frank-Six-Peter-Sugar-Queen

 C. Alfa-Fox-Sierra-Papa-Santiago-Queen

 D. Alfa-Foxtrot-Six-Papa-Sierra-Quebec

06~A~3B-1.10
3B-1.10
How is the call sign NB8LXG stated phonetically?

 A. November-Bravo-Eight-Lima-Xray-Golf

 B. Nancy-Baker-Eight-Love-Xray-George

 C. Norway-Boston-Eight-London-Xray-Germany

 D. November-Bravo-Eight-London-Xray-Germany

06~C~3B-1.11
3B-1.11
How is the call sign KJ1UOI stated phonetically?

 A. King-John-One-Uncle-Oboe-Ida

 B. Kilowatt-George-India-Uncle-Oscar-India

 C. Kilo-Juliette-One-Uniform-Oscar-India

 D. Kentucky-Juliette-One-United-Ontario-Indiana

06~A~3B-1.12
3B-1.12
How is the call sign WV2BPZ stated phonetically?

 A. Whiskey-Victor-Two-Bravo-Papa-Zulu

 B. Willie-Victor-Two-Baker-Papa-Zebra

 C. Whiskey-Victor-Tango-Bravo-Papa-Zulu

 D. Willie-Virginia-Two-Boston-Peter-Zanzibar

06~D~3B-1.13
3B-1.13
How is the call sign NY3CTJ stated phonetically?

 A. Norway-Yokohama-Three-California-Tokyo-Japan

 B. Nancy-Yankee-Three-Cat-Texas-Jackrabbit

 C. Norway-Yesterday-Three-Charlie-Texas-Juliette

 D. November-Yankee-Three-Charlie-Tango-Juliette

07~B~3B-1.14
3B-1.14
How is the call sign KG7DRV stated phonetically?

 A. Kilo-Golf-Seven-Denver-Radio-Venezuela

 B. Kilo-Golf-Seven-Delta-Romeo-Victor

 C. King-John-Seven-Dog-Radio-Victor

 D. Kilowatt-George-Seven-Delta-Romeo-Video

07~A~3B-1.15
3B-1.15
How is the call sign WX9HKS stated phonetically?

 A. Whiskey-Xray-Nine-Hotel-Kilo-Sierra

 B. Willie-Xray-November-Hotel-King-Sierra

 C. Washington-Xray-Nine-Honolulu-Kentucky-Santiago

 D. Whiskey-Xray-Nine-Henry-King-Sugar

07~C~3B-1.16
3B-1.16
How is the call sign AE0LQY stated phonetically?

 A. Able-Easy-Zero-Lima-Quebec-Yankee

 B. Arizona-Equador-Zero-London-Queen-Yesterday

 C. Alfa-Echo-Zero-Lima-Quebec-Yankee

 D. Able-Easy-Zero-Love-Queen-Yoke

07~D~3B-2.5
3B-2.5
What is meant by the term AMTOR?

 A. AMTOR is a system using two separate antennas with a
    common receiver to reduce transmission errors

 B. AMTOR is a system in which the transmitter feeds two antennas,
    at right angles to each other, to reduce transmission errors

 C. AMTOR is a system using independent sideband to reduce
    transmission errors

 D. AMTOR is a system using error-detection and correction to
    reduce transmission errors

07~B~3B-2.7
3B-2.7
What is the most common frequency shift for emission F2B
transmissions in the amateur VHF bands?

 A. 85 Hz

 B. 170 Hz

 C. 300 Hz

 D. 425 Hz

07~D~3B-2.8
3B-2.8
What is an RTTY mailbox?

 A. A QSL Bureau for teletype DX cards

 B. An open net for RTTY operators

 C. An address to which RTTY operators may write for
    technical assistance

 D. A system by which messages may be stored electronically
    for later retrieval

07~C~3B-2.9
3B-2.9
What is the purpose of transmitting a string of RYRYRY characters in RTTY?

 A. It is the RTTY equivalent of CQ

 B. Since it represents alternate upper and lower case signals, it is used
    to assist the receiving operator check the shift mechanism

 C. Since it contains alternating mark and space frequencies, it is a check
    on proper operation of the transmitting and receiving equipment

 D. It is sent at the beginning of an important message to
    activate stations equipped with SELCAL and Autostart

07~B~3B-3.1
3B-3.1
How should a QSO be initiated through a station in repeater operation?

 A. Say "breaker, breaker 79"

 B. Call the desired station and then identify your own station

 C. Call "CQ" three times and identify three times

 D. Wait for a "CQ" to be called and then answer it

07~C~3B-3.2
3B-3.2
Why should users of a station in repeater operation pause
briefly between transmissions?

 A. To check the SWR of the repeater

 B. To reach for pencil and paper for third party traffic

 C. To listen for any hams wanting to break in

 D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch

07~A~3B-3.3
3B-3.3
Why should users of a station in repeater operation keep
their transmissions short and thoughtful?

 A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency
    from using the repeater

 B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake

 C. To give any non-hams that are listening a chance to respond

 D. To keep long-distance charges down

07~C~3B-3.4
3B-3.4
Why should simplex be used where possible instead of using
a station in repeater operation?

 A. Farther distances can be reached

 B. To avoid long distance toll charges

 C. To avoid tying up the repeater unnecessarily

 D. To permit the testing of the effectiveness of your antenna

07~D~3B-3.5
3B-3.5
What is the proper procedure to break into an on-going QSO
through a station in repeater operation?

 A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling

 B. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join
    the conversation

 C. Turn on your 100-watt amplifier and override whoever is talking

 D. Send your call sign during a break between transmissions

07~B~3B-3.6
3B-3.6
What is the purpose of repeater operation?

 A. To cut your power bill by using someone's higher power system

 B. To enable mobile and low-power stations to extend their usable range

 C. To reduce your telephone bill

 D. To call the ham radio distributor 50 miles away

07~D~3B-3.7
3B-3.7
What is a repeater frequency coordinator?

 A. Someone who coordinates the assembly of a repeater station

 B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of system to buy

 C. The club's repeater trustee

 D. A person or group that recommends frequency pairs for repeater usage

07~D~3B-3.9
3B-3.9
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for
stations in repeater operation in the 2 meter band?

 A. 1 MHz

 B. 1.6 MHz

 C. 170 Hz

 D. 0.6 MHz

07~B~3B-3.10
3B-3.10
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for
stations in repeater operation in the 70 centimeter band?

 A. 1.6 MHz

 B. 5 MHz

 C. 600 kHz

 D. 5 kHz

07~A~3B-3.11
3B-3.11
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
6 meter station in repeater operation?

 A. 1 MHz

 B. 600 kHz

 C. 1.6 MHz

 D. 20 kHz

08~C~3B-3.13
3B-3.13
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
1.25 meter station in repeater operation?

 A. 1000 kHz

 B. 600 kHz

 C. 1600 kHz

 D. 1.6 GHz

08~A~3B-6.4
3B-6.4
Why should local amateur radiocommunications be conducted
on VHF and UHF frequencies?

 A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-
    distance sky-wave communication

 B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF

 C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally

 D. Because absorption is greater at VHF and UHF frequencies

08~A~3B-6.5
3B-6.5
How can on-the-air transmissions be minimized during a
lengthy transmitter testing or loading up procedure?

 A. Use a dummy antenna

 B. Choose an unoccupied frequency

 C. Use a non-resonant antenna

 D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading up procedure

08~C~3B-6.6
3B-6.6
When a frequency conflict arises between a simplex operation
and a repeater operation, why does good amateur practice call
for the simplex operation to move to another frequency?

 A. The repeater's output power can be turned up to ruin the
    front end of the station in simplex operation

 B. There are more repeaters than simplex operators

 C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical

 D. Changing a repeater frequency requires the authorization
    of the Federal Communications Commission

08~C~3B-6.7
3B-6.7
What should be done before installing an amateur station
within one mile of an FCC monitoring station?

 A. The amateur should apply to the FCC for a Special
    Temporary Authority for operation within the shadow of the
    monitoring facility's antenna system

 B. The amateur should make sure a line-of-sight path does
    not exist between the amateur station and the monitoring facility

 C. The amateur should consult with the Commission to protect
    the monitoring facility from harmful interference

 D. The amateur should make sure the effective radiated power
    of the amateur station will be less than 200 watts PEP in the
    direction of the monitoring facility

08~A~3B-6.8
3B-6.8
What is the proper Q signal to use to determine whether a
frequency is in use before making a transmission?

 A. QRL?

 B. QRU?

 C. QRV?

 D. QRZ?

08~B~3B-6.9
3B-6.9
What is meant by "making the repeater time out"?

 A. The repeater's battery supply has run out

 B. The repeater's transmission time limit has expired during
    a single transmission

 C. The warranty on the repeater duplexer has expired

 D. The repeater is in need of repairs

08~D~3B-6.10
3B-6.10
During commuting rush hours, which types of operation
should relinquish the use of the repeater?

 A. Mobile operators

 B. Low-power stations

 C. Highway traffic information nets

 D. Third-party traffic nets

08~A~3B-9.1
3B-9.1
What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telephony?

 A. Transmit MAYDAY

 B. Transmit QRRR

 C. Transmit QRZ

 D. Transmit SOS

08~D~3B-9.2
3B-9.2
What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telegraphy?

 A. Transmit MAYDAY

 B. Transmit QRRR

 C. Transmit QRZ

 D. Transmit SOS

09~A~3C-1.1
3C-1.1
What is the ionosphere?

 A. That part of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and
    free electrons exist to affect radio-wave propagation

 B. The boundary between two air masses of different
    temperature and humidity, along which radio waves can travel

 C. The ball that goes on the top of a mobile whip antenna

 D. That part of the atmosphere where weather takes place

09~A~3C-1.2
3C-1.2
Which ionospheric layer limits daytime radiocommunications
in the 80 meter band to short distances?

 A. D layer

 B. F1 layer

 C. E layer

 D. F2 layer

09~D~3C-1.3
3C-1.3
What is the region of the outer atmosphere which makes long-distance
radiocommunications possible as a result of bending of radio waves?

 A. Troposphere

 B. Stratosphere

 C. Magnetosphere

 D. Ionosphere

09~D~3C-1.4
3C-1.4
Which layer of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for
long-distance sky-wave radiocommunications?

 A. D layer

 B. E layer

 C. F1 layer

 D. F2 layer

09~B~3C-1.5
3C-1.5
What are the two distinct sub-layers of the F layer of the
ionosphere during the daytime?

 A. Troposphere and stratosphere

 B. F1 and F2

 C. Electrostatic and electromagnetic

 D. D and E

09~B~3C-1.8
3C-1.8
What is the lowest region of the ionosphere that is useful
for long-distance radio wave propagation?

 A. The D layer

 B. The E layer

 C. The F1 layer

 D. The F2 layer

10~C~3C-1.11
3C-1.11
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for
ionization in the outer atmosphere?

 A. Thermal

 B. Ionized particle

 C. Ultraviolet

 D. Microwave

10~B~3C-1.12
3C-1.12
What is the lowest ionospheric layer?

 A. The A layer

 B. The D layer

 C. The E layer

 D. The F layer

10~A~3C-1.14
3C-1.14
What is the region of the outer atmosphere which makes long-distance
radiocommunications possible as a result of bending of the radio waves?

 A. The ionosphere

 B. The troposphere

 C. The magnetosphere

 D. The stratosphere

10~D~3C-2.1
3C-2.1
Which layer of the ionosphere is most responsible for
absorption of radio signals during daylight hours?

 A. The E layer

 B. The F1 layer

 C. The F2 layer

 D. The D layer

10~A~3C-2.2
3C-2.2
When is ionospheric absorption most pronounced?

 A. When radio waves enter the D layer at low angles

 B. When tropospheric ducting occurs

 C. When radio waves travel to the F layer

 D. When a temperature inversion occurs

10~A~3C-2.5
3C-2.5
During daylight hours, what effect does the D layer of the
ionosphere have on 80 meter radio waves?

 A. The D layer absorbs the signals

 B. The D layer bends the radio waves out into space

 C. The D layer refracts the radio waves back to earth

 D. The D layer has little or no effect on 80 meter radio
    wave propagation

10~B~3C-2.6
3C-2.6
What causes ionospheric absorption of radio waves?

 A. A lack of D layer ionization

 B. D layer ionization

 C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E layer

 D. Splitting of the F layer

10~D~3C-3.1
3C-3.1
What is the highest radio frequency that will be refracted
back to earth called?

 A. Lowest usable frequency

 B. Optimum working frequency

 C. Ultra high frequency

 D. Critical frequency

10~D~3C-3.2
3C-3.2
What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?

 A. Variations in the temperature of the air at ionospheric levels

 B. Upper-atmospheric wind patterns

 C. Presence of ducting

 D. The amount of ultraviolet and other types of radiation
    received from the sun

10~A~3C-3.5
3C-3.5
What does the term maximum usable frequency refer to?

 A. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach
    its destination in a single hop

 B. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach
    its destination in a single hop

 C. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to be
    absorbed in the lowest ionospheric layer

 D. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to be
    absorbed in the lowest ionospheric layer

10~D~3C-4.1
3C-4.1
What is usually the condition of the ionosphere just before sunrise?

 A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum

 B. Ionization is at a maximum

 C. The E layer is above the F layer

 D. Ionization is at a minimum

10~D~3C-4.2
3C-4.2
At what time of day does maximum ionization of the ionosphere occur?

 A. Dusk

 B. Midnight

 C. Dawn

 D. Midday

10~D~3C-4.3
3C-4.3
Which two daytime ionospheric layers combine into one layer at night?

 A. E and F1

 B. D and E

 C. E1 and E2

 D. F1 and F2

10~A~3C-4.4
3C-4.4
Minimum ionization of the ionosphere occurs daily at what time?

 A. Shortly before dawn

 B. Just after noon

 C. Just after dusk

 D. Shortly before midnight

10~C~3C-6.1
3C-6.1
When two stations are within each other's skip zone on the frequency
being used, what mode of propagation would it be desirable to use?

 A. Ground wave propagation

 B. Sky wave propagation

 C. Scatter-mode propagation

 D. Ionospheric ducting propagation

10~B~3C-6.3
3C-6.3
When is E layer ionization at a maximum?

 A. Dawn

 B. Midday

 C. Dusk

 D. Midnight

11~A~3C-8.1
3C-8.1
What is the transmission path of a wave that travels directly from
the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna called?

 A. Line of sight

 B. The sky wave

 C. The linear wave

 D. The plane wave

11~B~3C-8.2
3C-8.2
How are VHF signals within the range of the visible horizon propagated?

 A. By sky wave

 B. By direct wave

 C. By plane wave

 D. By geometric wave

11~D~3C-9.1
3C-9.1
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?

 A. F2

 B. Ionosphere

 C. Stratosphere

 D. Troposphere

11~A~3C-9.2
3C-9.2
What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2 meter radio waves?

 A. It increases the distance over which they can be transmitted

 B. It decreases the distance over which they can be transmitted

 C. It tends to garble 2-meter phone transmissions

 D. It reverses the sideband of 2-meter phone transmissions

11~D~3C-9.3
3C-9.3
What atmospheric phenomenon causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?

 A. A very low pressure area

 B. An aurora to the north

 C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station

 D. A temperature inversion

11~A~3C-9.4
3C-9.4
Tropospheric ducting occurs as a result of what phenomenon?

 A. A temperature inversion

 B. Sun spots

 C. An aurora to the north

 D. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station

11~B~3C-9.5
3C-9.5
What atmospheric phenomenon causes VHF radio waves to be propagated
several hundred miles through stable air masses over oceans?

 A. Presence of a maritime polar air mass

 B. A widespread temperature inversion

 C. An overcast of cirriform clouds

 D. Atmospheric pressure of roughly 29 inches of mercury or higher

11~D~3C-9.6
3C-9.6
In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting occur most often?

 A. LF

 B. MF

 C. HF

 D. VHF

12~C~3D-1.1
3D-1.1
Where should the green wire in an ac line cord be attached in a power supply?

 A. To the fuse

 B. To the "hot" side of the power switch

 C. To the chassis

 D. To the meter

12~D~3D-1.2
3D-1.2
Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire line
cord be attached in a power supply?

 A. To the filter capacitor

 B. To the dc ground

 C. To the chassis

 D. To the fuse

12~B~3D-1.3
3D-1.3
Where should the white wire in a three-wire line cord be
attached in a power supply?

 A. To the fuse

 B. To one side of the transformer's primary winding

 C. To the black wire

 D. To the rectifier junction

12~B~3D-1.4
3D-1.4
Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a light
socket made of brass while the other one is silver colored?

 A. To prevent galvanic action

 B. To indicate correct polarity

 C. To better conduct current

 D. To reduce skin effect

12~A~3D-2.1
3D-2.1
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually fatal?

 A. As little as 100 milliamperes may be fatal

 B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be fatal

 C. More than 20 amperes is needed to kill a human being

 D. No amount of current will harm you. Voltages of over 2000
    volts are always fatal, however

12~A~3D-2.2
3D-2.2
What is the minimum voltage considered to be dangerous to humans?

 A. 30 volts

 B. 100 volts

 C. 1000 volts

 D. 2000 volts

12~C~3D-2.3
3D-2.3
Where should the main power-line switch for a high voltage
power supply be situated?

 A. Inside the cabinet, to interrupt power when the cabinet is opened

 B. On the rear panel of the high-voltage supply

 C. Where it can be seen and reached easily

 D. This supply should not be switch-operated

13~A~3D-2.5
3D-2.5
How much electrical current flowing through the human body
is usually painful?

 A. As little as 50 milliamperes may be painful

 B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be painful

 C. More than 20 amperes is needed to be painful to a human being

 D. No amount of current will be painful. Voltages of over 2000
    volts are always painful, however

13~A~3D-5.2
3D-5.2
Where in the antenna transmission line should a peak-reading wattmeter
be attached to determine the transmitter output power?

 A. At the transmitter output

 B. At the antenna feed point

 C. One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point

 D. One-quarter wavelength from the transmitter output

13~B~3D-5.3
3D-5.3
If a directional rf wattmeter indicates 90 watts forward power and
10 watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?

 A. 10 watts

 B. 80 watts

 C. 90 watts

 D. 100 watts

13~C~3D-5.4
3D-5.4
If a directional rf wattmeter indicates 96 watts forward power and 4 watts
reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?

 A. 80 watts

 B. 88 watts

 C. 92 watts

 D. 100 watts

13~D~3D-7.1
3D-7.1
What is a multimeter?

 A. An instrument capable of reading SWR and power

 B. An instrument capable of reading resistance, capacitance, and inductance

 C. An instrument capable of reading resistance and reactance

 D. An instrument capable of reading voltage, current, and resistance

13~C~3D-7.2
3D-7.2
How can the range of a voltmeter be extended?

 A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test

 B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test

 C. By adding resistance in series with the meter

 D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter

13~B~3D-7.3
3D-7.3
How is a voltmeter typically connected to a circuit under test?

 A. In series with the circuit

 B. In parallel with the circuit

 C. In quadrature with the circuit

 D. In phase with the circuit

13~D~3D-7.4
3D-7.4
How can the range of an ammeter be extended?

 A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test

 B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test

 C. By adding resistance in series with the meter

 D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter

13~A~3D-8.1
3D-8.1
What is a marker generator?

 A. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of
    reference signals at known frequency intervals

 B. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of frequencies

 C. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's location
    relative to the inner and outer markers at airports

 D. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and
    amplitude can be varied over a wide range

13~D~3D-8.2
3D-8.2
What piece of test equipment provides a variable-frequency signal which
can be used to check the frequency response of a circuit?

 A. Frequency counter

 B. Distortion analyzer

 C. Deviation meter

 D. Signal generator

14~D~3D-8.3
3D-8.3
What type of circuit is used to inject a frequency
calibration signal into a communication receiver?

 A. A product detector

 B. A receiver incremental tuning circuit

 C. A balanced modulator

 D. A crystal calibrator

14~A~3D-8.4
3D-8.4
How is a marker generator used?

 A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver

 B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver

 C. To test the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter

 D. To test the frequency deviation of an FM transmitter

14~D~3D-8.5
3D-8.5
When adjusting a transmitter filter circuit, what device
is connected to the transmitter output?

 A. Multimeter

 B. Litz wires

 C. Receiver

 D. Dummy antenna

14~B~3D-11.1
3D-11.1
What is a reflectometer?

 A. An instrument used to measure signals reflected from the ionosphere

 B. An instrument used to measure standing wave ratio

 C. An instrument used to measure transmission-line impedance

 D. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance

14~A~3D-11.2
3D-11.2
For best accuracy when adjusting the impedance match between an antenna and
feed line, where should the match-indicating device be inserted?

 A. At the antenna feed point

 B. At the transmitter

 C. At the midpoint of the feed line

 D. Anywhere along the feed line

14~D~3D-11.3
3D-11.3
What is the device that can indicate an impedance
mismatch in an antenna system?

 A. A field-strength meter

 B. A set of lecher wires

 C. A wavemeter

 D. A reflectometer

14~B~3D-11.4
3D-11.4
What is a reflectometer?

 A. An instrument used to measure signals reflected from the ionosphere

 B. An instrument used to measure standing wave ratio

 C. An instrument used to measure transmission-line impedance

 D. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance

14~C~3D-11.5
3D-11.5
Where should a reflectometer be inserted into a long antenna transmission
line in order to obtain the most valid standing wave ratio indication?

 A. At any quarter-wavelength interval along the transmission line

 B. At the receiver end

 C. At the antenna end

 D. At any even half-wavelength interval along the transmission line

14~B~3D-12.1
3D-12.1
What result might be expected when using a speech
processor with an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. A lower plate-current reading

 B. A less natural-sounding voice

 C. A cooler operating power supply

 D. Greater PEP output

14~B~3D-14.1
3D-14.1
What is a transmatch?

 A. A device for varying the resonant frequency of an antenna

 B. A device for varying the impedance presented to the transmitter

 C. A device for varying the tuning rate of the transmitter

 D. A device for varying the electrical length of an antenna

14~D~3D-14.2
3D-14.2
What is a balanced line?

 A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground

 B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to
    balance out harmonics

 C. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at even intervals

 D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground

15~C~3D-14.3
3D-14.3
What is an unbalanced line?

 A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground

 B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to suppress harmonics

 C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground

 D. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at
    uneven intervals

15~A~3D-14.4
3D-14.4
What is a balun?

 A. A device for using an unbalanced line to supply power to
    a balanced load, or vice versa

 B. A device to match impedances between two coaxial lines

 C. A device used to connect a microphone to a balanced modulator

 D. A counterbalance used with an azimuth/elevation rotator system

15~D~3D-14.5
3D-14.5
What is the purpose of an antenna matching circuit?

 A. To measure the impedance of the antenna

 B. To compare the radiation patterns of two antennas

 C. To measure the SWR of an antenna

 D. To match impedances within the antenna system

15~A~3D-14.8
3D-14.8
How is a transmatch used?

 A. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna
    system, and tuned for minimum SWR at the transmitter

 B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna
    system and tuned for minimum SWR at the antenna

 C. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna
    system, and tuned for minimum impedance

 D. It is connected between a transmitter and a dummy load,
    and tuned for maximum output power

15~B~3D-16.1
3D-16.1
What is a dummy antenna?

 A. An isotropic radiator

 B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter

 C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements

 D. The image of an antenna, located below ground

15~B~3D-16.2
3D-16.2
Of what materials may a dummy antenna be made?

 A. A wire-wound resistor

 B. A noninductive resistor

 C. A diode and resistor combination

 D. A coil and capacitor combination

15~B~3D-16.3
3D-16.3
What station accessory is used in place of an antenna
during transmitter tests so that no signal is radiated?

 A. A Transmatch

 B. A dummy antenna

 C. A low-pass filter

 D. A decoupling resistor

15~A~3D-16.4
3D-16.4
What is the purpose of a dummy load?

 A. To allow off-the-air transmitter testing

 B. To reduce output power for QRP operation

 C. To give comparative signal reports

 D. To allow Transmatch tuning without causing interference

15~A~3D-16.5
3D-16.5
How many watts should a dummy load for use with a 100 watt emission J3E
transmitter with 50 ohm output be able to dissipate?

 A. A minimum of 100 watts continuous

 B. A minimum of 141 watts continuous

 C. A minimum of 175 watts continuous

 D. A minimum of 200 watts continuous

15~C~3D-17.1
3D-17.1
What is an S-meter?

 A. A meter used to measure sideband suppression

 B. A meter used to measure spurious emissions from a transmitter

 C. A meter used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver

 D. A meter used to measure solar flux

15~C~3D-18.1
3D-18.1
For the most accurate readings of transmitter output
power, where should the rf wattmeter be inserted?

 A. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured
    one-quarter wavelength from the antenna feed point

 B. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured
    one-half wavelength from the antenna feed point

 C. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power
    measured at the transmitter antenna jack

 D. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power
    measured at the Transmatch output

15~B~3D-18.2
3D-18.2
At what line impedance are rf wattmeters usually designed to operate?

 A. 25 ohms

 B. 50 ohms

 C. 100 ohms

 D. 300 ohms

15~A~3D-18.3
3D-18.3
What is a directional wattmeter?

 A. An instrument that measures forward or reflected power

 B. An instrument that measures the directional pattern of an antenna

 C. An instrument that measures the energy consumed by the transmitter

 D. An instrument that measures thermal heating in a load resistor

16~D~3E-2.1
3E-2.1
What is meant by the term resistance?

 A. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
    circuit containing inductance

 B. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
    circuit containing capacitance

 C. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
    circuit containing reactance

 D. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
    circuit that does not contain reactance

16~D~3E-2.2
3E-2.2
What is the primary function of a resistor?

 A. To store an electric charge

 B. To store a magnetic field

 C. To match a high-impedance source to a low-impedance load

 D. To limit the current in an electric circuit

16~A~3E-2.3
3E-2.3
What is a variable resistor?

 A. A resistor with a slide or contact that makes the resistance adjustable

 B. A device that can transform a variable voltage into a-constant voltage

 C. A resistor that changes value when an ac voltage is applied to it

 D. A resistor that changes value when it is heated

16~A~3E-2.4
3E-2.4
Why do resistors generate heat?

 A. They convert electrical energy to heat energy

 B. They exhibit reactance

 C. Because of skin effect

 D. To produce thermionic emission

16~D~3E-4.1
3E-4.1
What is an inductor?

 A. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field

 B. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower voltage

 C. An electronic component that opposes dc while allowing ac to pass

 D. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field

16~D~3E-4.2
3E-4.2
What factors determine the amount of inductance in a coil?

 A. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core and
    whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically

 B. The diameter of the core, the number of turns of wire
    used to wind the coil and the type of metal used in the wire

 C. The type of material used in the core, the number of turns used to
    wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil

 D. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core,
    the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil

16~C~3E-4.3
3E-4.3
What are the electrical properties of an inductor?

 A. An inductor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes
    a change in voltage

 B. An inductor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes
    a change in current

 C. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and
    opposes a change in current

 D. An inductor stores a charge electromechanically and
    opposes a change in voltage

16~A~3E-4.4
3E-4.4
What is an inductor core?

 A. The central portion of a coil; may be made from air,
    iron, brass or other material

 B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer

 C. An insulating material placed between the plates of an inductor

 D. The point at which an inductor is tapped to produce resonance

16~A~3E-4.5
3E-4.5
What are the component parts of a coil?

 A. The wire in the winding and the core material

 B. Two conductive plates and an insulating material

 C. Two or more layers of silicon material

 D. A donut-shaped iron core and a layer of insulating tape

16~B~3E-5.1
3E-5.1
What is a capacitor?

 A. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field

 B. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field

 C. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower voltage

 D. An electronic component that converts power into heat

16~A~3E-5.2
3E-5.2
What factors determine the amount of capacitance in a capacitor?

 A. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates,
    the area of one side of one plate, the separation between
    the plates and the number of plates

 B. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the number of
    plates and the diameter of the leads connected to the plates

 C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and
    whether the dielectric material is N type or P type

 D. The dielectric constant of the material between the
    plates, the surface area of one side of one plate, the number of
    plates and the type of material used for the protective coating

16~D~3E-5.3
3E-5.3
What are the electrical properties of a capacitor?

 A. A capacitor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes
    a change in current

 B. A capacitor stores a charge electromagnetically and
    opposes a change in current

 C. A capacitor stores a charge electromechanically and
    opposes a change in voltage

 D. A capacitor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes
    a change in voltage

16~D~3E-5.4
3E-5.4
What is a capacitor dielectric?

 A. The insulating material used for the plates

 B. The conducting material used between the plates

 C. The ferrite material that the plates are mounted on

 D. The insulating material between the plates

16~A~3E-5.5
3E-5.5
What are the component parts of a capacitor?

 A. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material between them

 B. The wire used in the winding and the core material

 C. Two or more layers of silicon material

 D. Two insulating plates with a conductive material between them

16~A~3E-7.1
3E-7.1
What is an ohm?

 A. The basic unit of resistance

 B. The basic unit of capacitance

 C. The basic unit of inductance

 D. The basic unit of admittance

16~D~3E-7.3
3E-7.3
What is the unit measurement of resistance?

 A. Volt

 B. Ampere

 C. Joule

 D. Ohm

17~A~3E-8.1
3E-8.1
What is a microfarad?
                                            -6
 A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10     farads

                                            -12
 B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10      farads

                                            -2
 C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10     farads

                                            6
 D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10    farads

17~B~3E-8.2
3E-8.2
What is a picofarad?
                                            -6
 A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10     farads

                                            -12
 B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10      farads

                                            -2
 C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10     farads

                                            6
 D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10    farads

17~B~3E-8.3
3E-8.3
What is a farad?

 A. The basic unit of resistance

 B. The basic unit of capacitance

 C. The basic unit of inductance

 D. The basic unit of admittance

17~A~3E-8.4
3E-8.4
What is the basic unit of capacitance?

 A. Farad

 B. Ohm

 C. Volt

 D. Ampere

17~D~3E-9.1
3E-9.1
What is a microhenry?
                                           -12
 A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10      henrys

                                           -3
 B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10     henrys

                                           6
 C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10    henrys

                                           -6
 D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10     henrys

17~C~3E-9.2
3E-9.2
What is a millihenry?
                                           -6
 A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10     henrys

                                           -12
 B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10      henrys

                                           -3
 C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10     henrys

                                           6
 D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10    henrys

17~C~3E-9.3
3E-9.3
What is a henry?

 A. The basic unit of resistance

 B. The basic unit of capacitance

 C. The basic unit of inductance

 D. The basic unit of admittance

17~D~3E-9.4
3E-9.4
What is the basic unit of inductance?

 A. Coulomb

 B. Farad

 C. Ohm

 D. Henry

17~A~3E-11.1
3E-11.1
How is the current in a dc circuit calculated when the
voltage and resistance are known?

 A. I = E / R

 B. P = I x E

 C. I = R x E

 D. I = E x R

17~C~3E-11.2
3E-11.2
What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt
battery supplies 0.25-amperes to it?

 A. 0.02 ohms

 B. 3 ohms

 C. 48 ohms

 D. 480 ohms

17~D~3E-11.3
3E-11.3
The product of the current and what force gives the
electrical power in a circuit?

 A. Magnetomotive force

 B. Centripetal force

 C. Electrochemical force

 D. Electromotive force

17~A~3E-11.4
3E-11.4
What is Ohm's Law?

 A. A mathematical relationship between resistance, current
    and applied voltage in a circuit

 B. A mathematical relationship between current, resistance
    and power in a circuit

 C. A mathematical relationship between current, voltage and
    power in a circuit

 D. A mathematical relationship between resistance, voltage
    and power in a circuit

17~B~3E-11.5
3E-11.5
What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt
battery supplies 0.15-amperes to it?

 A. 8 ohms

 B. 80 ohms

 C. 100 ohms

 D. 800 ohms

17~C~3E-12.2
3E-12.2
In a series circuit composed of a voltage source and several resistors,
what determines the voltage drop across any particular resistor?

 A. It is equal to the source voltage

 B. It is equal to the source voltage divided by the number
    of series resistors in the circuit

 C. The larger the resistor's value, the greater the voltage
    drop across that resistor

 D. The smaller the resistor's value, the greater the voltage
    drop across that resistor

17~B~3E-13.4
3E-13.4
How is power calculated when the current and voltage
in a circuit are known?

 A. E = I x R

 B. P = I x E

 C. P = I\2/ / R

 D. P = E/I

17~D~3E-14.8
3E-14.8
When 120-volts is measured across a 4700 ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 39 amperes

 B. 3.9 amperes

 C. 0.26 ampere

 D. 0.026 ampere

17~D~3E-14.9
3E-14.9
When 120-volts is measured across a 47000 ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 392 A

 B. 39.2 A

 C. 26 mA

 D. 2.6 mA

17~A~3E-14.10
3E-14.10
When 12-volts is measured across a 4700 ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 2.6 mA

 B. 26 mA

 C. 39.2 A

 D. 392 A

17~A~3E-14.11
3E-14.11
When 12-volts is measured across a 47000 ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 255 uA

 B. 255 mA

 C. 3917 mA

 D. 3917 A

18~B~3F-1.1
3F-1.1
How can a carbon resistor's electrical tolerance rating be found?

 A. By using a wavemeter

 B. By using the resistor's color code

 C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors

 D. By using the Baudot code

18~C~3F-1.2
3F-1.2
Why would a large size resistor be substituted for a
smaller one of the same resistance?

 A. To obtain better response

 B. To obtain a higher current gain

 C. To increase power dissipation capability

 D. To produce a greater parallel impedance

18~A~3F-1.3
3F-1.3
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?

 A. The value of the resistor in ohms

 B. The resistance tolerance in percent

 C. The power rating in watts

 D. The value of the resistor in henrys

18~B~3F-1.4
3F-1.4
What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?

 A. The value of the resistor in ohms

 B. The resistance tolerance in percent

 C. The power rating in watts

 D. The resistor composition

18~C~3F-1.6
3F-1.6
When the color bands on a group of resistors indicate that they all have
the same resistance, what further information about each resistor is
needed in order to select those that have nearly equal value?

 A. The working voltage rating of each resistor

 B. The composition of each resistor

 C. The tolerance of each resistor

 D. The current rating of each resistor

19~B~3F-2.1
3F-2.1
As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what
happens to its capacitance?

 A. Decreases

 B. Increases

 C. Stays the same

 D. Becomes voltage dependent

19~D~3F-2.2
3F-2.2
As the plate spacing of a capacitor is increased, what
happens to its capacitance?

 A. Increases

 B. Stays the same

 C. Becomes voltage dependent

 D. Decreases

19~C~3F-2.3
3F-2.3
What is an electrolytic capacitor?

 A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer

 B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica insulation

 C. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of
    plates through electrochemical action

 D. A capacitor whose value varies with applied voltage

19~C~3F-2.4
3F-2.4
What is a paper capacitor?

 A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer

 B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica insulation

 C. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a layer of paper

 D. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of
    plates through electrochemical action

19~A~3F-2.5
3F-2.5
What factors must be considered when selecting a capacitor
for a circuit?

 A. Type of capacitor, capacitance and voltage rating

 B. Type of capacitor, capacitance and the kilowatt-hour rating

 C. The amount of capacitance, the temperature coefficient and the KVA rating

 D. The type of capacitor, the microscopy coefficient and the
    temperature coefficient

19~B~3F-2.8
3F-2.8
How are the characteristics of a capacitor usually specified?

 A. In volts and amperes

 B. In microfarads and volts

 C. In ohms and watts

 D. In millihenrys and amperes

19~B~3F-3.1
3F-3.1
What can be done to raise the inductance of a 5-microhenry air-core
coil to a 5-millihenry coil with the same physical dimensions?

 A. The coil can be wound on a non-conducting tube

 B. The coil can be wound on an iron core

 C. Both ends of the coil can be brought around to form the
    shape of a donut, or toroid

 D. The coil can be made of a heavier-gauge wire

19~D~3F-3.2
3F-3.2
Describe an inductor.

 A. A semiconductor in a conducting shield

 B. Two parallel conducting plates

 C. A straight wire conductor mounted inside a Faraday shield

 D. A coil of conducting wire

19~A~3F-3.3
3F-3.3
As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the inductance?

 A. It increases

 B. It decreases

 C. It stays the same

 D. It becomes voltage-dependent

19~B~3F-3.4
3F-3.4
As a brass core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the inductance?

 A. It increases

 B. It decreases

 C. It stays the same

 D. It becomes voltage-dependent

19~C~3F-3.5
3F-3.5
For radio frequency power applications, which type of
inductor has the least amount of loss?

 A. Magnetic wire

 B. Iron core

 C. Air core

 D. Slug tuned

19~B~3F-3.6
3F-3.6
Where does an inductor store energy?

 A. In a capacitive field

 B. In a magnetic field

 C. In an electrical field

 D. In a resistive field

19~B~3F-5.3
3F-5.3
What is a heat sink?

 A. A device used to heat an electrical component uniformly

 B. A device used to remove heat from an electronic component

 C. A tub in which circuit boards are soldered

 D. A fan used for transmitter cooling
20~C~3G-2.1
3G-2.1
What is a high-pass filter usually connected to?

 A. The transmitter and the Transmatch

 B. The Transmatch and the transmission line

 C. The television receiving antenna and a television
    receiver's antenna input

 D. The transmission line and the transmitting antenna

20~A~3G-2.2
3G-2.2
Where is the proper place to install a high-pass filter?

 A. At the antenna terminals of a television receiver

 B. Between a transmitter and a Transmatch

 C. Between a Transmatch and the transmission line

 D. On a transmitting antenna

20~C~3G-2.3
3G-2.3
Where is a band-pass filter usually installed?

 A. Between the spark plugs and coil in a mobile setup

 B. On a transmitting antenna

 C. In a communications receiver

 D. Between a Transmatch and the transmitting antenna

20~A~3G-2.4
3G-2.4
Which frequencies are attenuated by a low-pass filter?

 A. Those above its cut-off frequency

 B. Those within its cut-off frequency

 C. Those within 50 kHz on either side of its cut-off frequency

 D. Those below its cut-off frequency

20~C~3G-2.5
3G-2.5
What circuit passes electrical energy above a certain frequency
and attenuates electrical energy below that frequency?

 A. An input filter

 B. A low-pass filter

 C. A high-pass filter

 D. A band-pass filter

20~B~3G-2.6
3G-2.6
What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain
frequency and blocks electrical energy above that frequency?

 A. An input filter

 B. A low-pass filter

 C. A high-pass filter

 D. A band-pass filter

20~D~3G-2.7
3G-2.7
What circuit attenuates electrical energy above a
certain frequency and below a lower frequency?

 A. An input filter

 B. A low-pass filter

 C. A high-pass filter

 D. A band-pass filter

20~D~3G-2.9
3G-2.9
What general range of rf energy does a band-pass filter reject?

 A. All frequencies above a specified frequency

 B. All frequencies below a specified frequency

 C. All frequencies above the upper limit of the band in question

 D. All frequencies above a specified frequency and
    below a lower specified frequency

20~A~3G-3.1
3G-3.1
What circuit is likely to be found in all types of receivers?

 A. A detector

 B. An RF amplifier

 C. An audio filter

 D. A beat frequency oscillator

20~C~3G-3.2
3G-3.2
In a filter-type emission J3E transmitter, what stage combines
rf and af energy to produce a double-sideband suppressed carrier signal?

 A. The product detector

 B. The automatic-load-control circuit

 C. The balanced modulator

 D. The local oscillator

20~A~3G-3.3
3G-3.3
In a superheterodyne receiver for emission A3E reception, what
stage combines the received rf with energy from the local oscillator
to produce a signal at the receiver intermediate frequency?

 A. The mixer

 B. The detector

 C. The RF amplifier

 D. The AF amplifier

21~A~3H-1.1
3H-1.1
What is emission type N0N?

 A. Unmodulated carrier

 B. Telegraphy by on-off keying

 C. Telegraphy by keyed tone

 D. Telegraphy by frequency-shift keying

21~C~3H-1.2
3H-1.2
What is emission type A3E?

 A. Frequency-modulated telephony

 B. Facsimile

 C. Double-sideband, amplitude-modulated telephony

 D. Amplitude-modulated telegraphy

21~A~3H-1.3
3H-1.3
What is emission type J3E?

 A. Single-sideband suppressed-carrier amplitude-modulated telephony

 B. Single-sideband suppressed-carrier amplitude-modulated telegraphy

 C. Independent sideband suppressed-carrier amplitude- modulated telephony

 D. Single-sideband suppressed-carrier frequency-modulated telephony

21~B~3H-1.4
3H-1.4
What is emission type F1B?

 A. Amplitude-shift-keyed telegraphy

 B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy

 C. Frequency-modulated telephony

 D. Phase-modulated telephony

21~B~3H-1.5
3H-1.5
What is emission type F2B?

 A. Frequency-modulated telephony

 B. Frequency-modulated telegraphy using audio tones

 C. Frequency-modulated facsimile using audio tones

 D. Phase-modulated television

21~D~3H-1.6
3H-1.6
What is emission type F3E?

 A. AM telephony

 B. AM telegraphy

 C. FM telegraphy

 D. FM telephony

21~A~3H-1.7
3H-1.7
What is the emission symbol for telegraphy by
frequency shift keying without the use of a modulating tone?

 A. F1B

 B. F2B

 C. A1A

 D. J3E

21~B~3H-1.8
3H-1.8
What is the emission symbol for telegraphy by the on-
off keying of a frequency modulated tone?

 A. F1B

 B. F2A

 C. A1A

 D. J3E

21~B~3H-1.9
3H-1.9
What is the emission symbol for telephony by amplitude modulation?

 A. A1A

 B. A3E

 C. J2B

 D. F3E

21~B~3H-1.10
3H-1.10
What is the emission symbol for telephony by frequency modulation?

 A. F2B

 B. F3E

 C. A3E

 D. F1B

21~A~3H-2.2
3H-2.2
What is the meaning of the term modulation?

 A. The process of varying some characteristic of a
    carrier wave for the purpose of conveying information

 B. The process of recovering audio information from a
    received signal

 C. The process of increasing the average power of a single-
    sideband transmission

 D. The process of suppressing the carrier in a single-
    sideband transmitter

21~B~3H-6.1
3H-6.1
What characteristic makes emission F3E especially
well-suited for local VHF/UHF radiocommunications?

 A. Good audio fidelity and intelligibility under weak-signal conditions

 B. Good audio fidelity and high signal-to-noise ratio
    above a certain signal amplitude threshold

 C. Better rejection of multipath distortion than the AM modes

 D. Better carrier frequency stability than the AM modes

21~D~3H-6.2
3H-6.2
What emission is produced by a transmitter using a reactance modulator?

 A. A1A

 B. N0N

 C. J3E

 D. G3E

21~C~3H-7.1
3H-7.1
What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?

 A. Amplitude modulation

 B. Pulse modulation

 C. Frequency modulation

 D. Single-sideband modulation

22~B~3H-9.2
3H-9.2
What emission does not have sidebands resulting from modulation?

 A. A3E

 B. N0N

 C. F3E

 D. F2B

22~D~3H-12.1
3H-12.1
To what is the deviation of an emission F3E transmission proportional?

 A. Only the frequency of the audio modulating signal

 B. The frequency and the amplitude of the audio modulating signal

 C. The duty cycle of the audio modulating signal

 D. Only the amplitude of the audio modulating signal

22~B~3H-14.1
3H-14.1
What is the result of overdeviation in an emission F3E transmitter?

 A. Increased transmitter power consumption

 B. Out-of-channel emissions (splatter)

 C. Increased transmitter range

 D. Inadequate carrier suppression

22~C~3H-14.2
3H-14.2
What is splatter?

 A. Interference to adjacent signals caused by excessive
    transmitter keying speeds

 B. Interference to adjacent signals caused by improper
    transmitter neutralization

 C. Interference to adjacent signals caused by
    overmodulation of a transmitter

 D. Interference to adjacent signals caused by parasitic
    oscillations at the antenna

22~B~3H-16.1
3H-16.1
What emissions are used in teleprinting?

 A. F1A, F2B and F1B

 B. A2B, F1B and F2B

 C. A1B, A2B and F2B

 D. A2B, F1A and F2B

22~D~3H-16.2
3H-16.2
What two states of teleprinter codes are most commonly
used in amateur radiocommunications?

 A. Dot and dash

 B. Highband and lowband

 C. Start and stop

 D. Mark and space

22~C~3H-16.3
3H-16.3
What emission type results when an af shift keyer is connected
to the microphone jack of an emission F3E transmitter?

 A. A2B

 B. F1B

 C. F2B

 D. A1F

23~D~3I-1.1
3I-1.1
What antenna type best strengthens signals from a particular
direction while attenuating those from other directions?

 A. A monopole antenna

 B. An isotropic antenna

 C. A vertical antenna

 D. A beam antenna

23~C~3I-1.2
3I-1.2
What is a Yagi antenna?

 A. Half-wavelength elements stacked vertically and excited in phase

 B. Quarter-wavelength elements arranged horizontally
    and excited out of phase

 C. Half-wavelength linear driven element(s) with
    parasitically excited parallel linear elements

 D. Quarter-wavelength, triangular loop elements

23~A~3I-1.4
3I-1.4
What is the general configuration of the radiating
elements of a horizontally-polarized Yagi?

 A. Two or more straight, parallel elements arranged in
    the same horizontal plane

 B. Vertically stacked square or circular loops arranged
    in parallel horizontal planes

 C. Two or more wire loops arranged in parallel vertical planes

 D. A vertical radiator arranged in the center of an
    effective RF ground plane

23~D~3I-1.5
3I-1.5
What type of parasitic beam antenna uses two or more straight
metal-tubing elements arranged physically parallel to each other?

 A. A quad antenna

 B. A delta loop antenna

 C. A Zepp antenna

 D. A Yagi antenna

23~B~3I-1.6
3I-1.6
How many directly-driven elements does a Yagi antenna have?

 A. None; they are all parasitic

 B. One

 C. Two

 D. All elements are directly driven

23~A~3I-1.8
3I-1.8
What is a parasitic beam antenna?

 A. An antenna where the director and reflector elements receive their
    RF excitation by induction or radiation from the driven element

 B. An antenna where wave traps are used to assure
    magnetic coupling among the elements

 C. An antenna where all elements are driven by direct
    connection to the feed line

 D. An antenna where the driven element receives its RF
    excitation by induction or radiation from the directors

23~B~3I-2.2
3I-2.2
What kind of antenna array is composed of a square full-wave closed
loop driven element with parallel parasitic element(s)?

 A. Dual rhombic

 B. Cubical quad

 C. Stacked Yagi

 D. Delta loop

23~D~3I-2.3
3I-2.3
Approximately how long is one side of the driven
element of a cubical quad antenna?

 A. 2 electrical wavelengths

 B. 1 electrical wavelength

 C. 1/2 electrical wavelength

 D. 1/4 electrical wavelength

23~C~3I-2.4
3I-2.4
Approximately how long is the wire in the driven
element of a cubical quad antenna?

 A. 1/4 electrical wavelength

 B. 1/2 electrical wavelength

 C. 1 electrical wavelength

 D. 2 electrical wavelengths

23~A~3I-2.5
3I-2.5
What is a delta loop antenna?

 A. A variation of the cubical quad antenna, with triangular elements

 B. A large copper ring, used in direction finding

 C. An antenna system composed of three vertical
    antennas, arranged in a triangular shape

 D. An antenna made from several coils of wire on an insulating form

23~B~3I-2.6
3I-2.6
What is a cubical quad antenna?

 A. Four parallel metal tubes, each approximately 1/2
    electrical wavelength long

 B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each
    approximately one electrical wavelength long

 C. A vertical conductor 1/4 electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom

 D. A center-fed wire 1/2 electrical wavelength long

23~D~3I-4.1
3I-4.1
What is the polarization of electromagnetic waves radiated from
a half-wavelength antenna perpendicular to the earth's surface?

 A. Circularly polarized waves

 B. Horizontally polarized waves

 C. Parabolically polarized waves

 D. Vertically polarized waves

23~B~3I-4.2
3I-4.2
What is the electromagnetic wave polarization of most
man-made electrical noise radiation in the HF-VHF spectrum?

 A. Left-hand circular

 B. Vertical

 C. Right-hand circular

 D. Horizontal

23~C~3I-4.3
3I-4.3
To what does the term vertical as applied to wave
polarization refer?

 A. This means that the electric lines of force in the
    radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface

 B. This means that the magnetic lines of force in the
    radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface

 C. This means that the electric lines of force in the
    radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface

 D. This means that the radio wave will leave the
    antenna and radiate vertically into the ionosphere

24~B~3I-4.4
3I-4.4
To what does the term horizontal as applied to wave polarization refer?

 A. This means that the magnetic lines of force in the
    radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface

 B. This means that the electric lines of force in the
    radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface

 C. This means that the electric lines of force in the
    radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface

 D. This means that the radio wave will leave the
    antenna and radiate horizontally to the destination

24~B~3I-4.5
3I-4.5
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna
have when the feed point is in the center of a horizontal side?

 A. Vertical

 B. Horizontal

 C. Circular

 D. Helical

24~A~3I-4.6
3I-4.6
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna
have when the feed point is in the center of a vertical side?

 A. Vertical

 B. Horizontal

 C. Circular

 D. Helical

24~B~3I-4.7
3I-4.7
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical
quad antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the
earth's surface and the feed point is at the bottom corner?

 A. Vertical

 B. Horizontal

 C. Circular

 D. Helical

24~A~3I-4.8
3I-4.8
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad
antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's
surface and the feed point is at a side corner?

 A. Vertical

 B. Horizontal

 C. Circular

 D. Helical

24~D~3I-6.7
3I-6.7
What is a directional antenna?

 A. An antenna whose parasitic elements are all
    constructed to be directors

 B. An antenna that radiates in direct line-of-sight
    propagation, but not skywave or skip propagation

 C. An antenna permanently mounted so as to radiate in only one direction

 D. An antenna that radiates more strongly in some directions than others

24~D~3I-8.1
3I-8.1
What is meant by the term standing wave ratio?

 A. The ratio of forward and reflected inductances on a feed line

 B. The ratio of forward and reflected resistances on a feed line

 C. The ratio of forward and reflected impedances on a feed line

 D. The ratio of forward and reflected voltages on a feed line

24~A~3I-8.2
3I-8.2
What is meant by the term forward power?

 A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna

 B. The power radiated from the front of a directional antenna

 C. The power produced during the positive half of the RF cycle

 D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier

24~B~3I-8.3
3I-8.3
What is meant by the term reflected power?

 A. The power radiated from the back of a directional antenna

 B. The power returned to the transmitter from the antenna

 C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle

 D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by buildings and trees

24~A~3I-9.1
3I-9.1
What is standing wave ratio a measure of?

 A. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on a feed line

 B. The ratio of maximum to minimum reactance on a feed line

 C. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistance on a feed line

 D. The ratio of maximum to minimum sidebands on a feed line

24~D~3I-9.2
3I-9.2
What happens to the power loss in an unbalanced feed
line as the standing wave ratio increases?

 A. It is unpredictable

 B. It becomes nonexistent

 C. It decreases

 D. It increases

25~D~3I-10.1
3I-10.1
What is a balanced line?

 A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground

 B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to
    balance out harmonics

 C. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at
    even intervals

 D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground

25~B~3I-10.2
3I-10.2
What is a balanced antenna?

 A. A symmetrical antenna with one side of the feed point
    connected to ground

 B. An antenna (or a driven element in a array) that is
    symmetrical about the feed point

 C. A symmetrical antenna with both sides of the feed point
    connected to ground, to balance out harmonics

 D. An antenna designed to be mounted in the center

25~C~3I-10.3
3I-10.3
What is an unbalanced line?

 A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground

 B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to suppress harmonics

 C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground

 D. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at
    uneven intervals

25~A~3I-10.4
3I-10.4
What is an unbalanced antenna?

 A. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is not
    symmetrical about the feed point

 B. A symmetrical antenna, having neither half connected to ground

 C. An antenna (or a driven element in a array) that is
    symmetrical about the feed point

 D. A symmetrical antenna with both halves coupled to ground
    at uneven intervals

25~D~3I-11.3
3I-11.3
What type of feed line is best suited to operating at a
high standing wave ratio?

 A. Coaxial cable

 B. Twisted pair

 C. Flat ribbon "twin lead"

 D. Parallel open-wire line

25~B~3I-11.5
3I-11.5
What is the general relationship between frequencies
passing through a feed line and the losses in the feed line?

 A. Loss is independent of frequency

 B. Loss increases with increasing frequency

 C. Loss decreases with increasing frequency

 D. There is no predictable relationship

25~C~3I-11.6
3I-11.6
What happens to rf energy not delivered to the antenna by
a lossy coaxial cable?

 A. It is radiated by the feed line

 B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground

 C. Some of it is dissipated as heat in the conductors and dielectric

 D. It is canceled because of the voltage ratio of forward
    power to reflected power in the feed line

25~A~3I-11.9
3I-11.9
As the operating frequency decreases, what happens
to conductor losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decrease

 B. The losses increase

 C. The losses remain the same

 D. The losses become infinite

25~B~3I-11.11
3I-11.11
As the operating frequency increases, what happens
to conductor losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decrease

 B. The losses increase

 C. The losses remain the same

 D. The losses decrease to zero

25~D~3I-12.3
3I-12.3
What device can be installed on a balanced antenna
so that it can be fed through a coaxial cable?

 A. A triaxial transformer

 B. A wavetrap

 C. A loading coil

 D. A balun

25~B~3I-12.4
3I-12.4
What is a balun?

 A. A device that can be used to convert an antenna designed to be fed
    at the center so that it may be fed at one end

 B. A device that may be installed on a balanced antenna
    so that it may be fed with unbalanced feed line

 C. A device that can be installed on an antenna to
    produce horizontally polarized or vertically polarized waves

 D. A device used to allow an antenna to operate on more than one band

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