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Text File | 1991-05-29 | 142KB | 3,741 lines

&Advanced 1990 question pool (Element 4A) + For Advanced exams given on or after November 1, 1990 + + Note: This question pool has not been proof-read. + + The following questions have been disabled from this question pool due to + the limitations of trying to draw schematics with character graphics: + + 4AF-1.1, 4AF-1.3, 4AF-1.7, 4AF-1.10, 4AF-2.1, 4AF-2.2, 4AF-2.14, 4AF-3.1, + 4AF-3.6, 4AF-4.1, 4AF-4.6 + + You should study these questions by other means, they could appear on + actual exams! This question pool shouldn't be used to generate actual + exams because of these deletions (it may be used if the missing questions + are manually considered for inclusion in the exam). + ; Number of sections (sub-elements) % 9 ; number of questions in each section * 66 10 20 40 100 49 100 63 47 ; 60 48 <--- correct numbers if no questions missing ; missing questions are diagrams ;Number of questions from each section @ 6 1 2 4 10 6 10 6 5 ;Number of questions correct to pass exam $ 37 ! 1 ;SUBELEMENT 4AA -- Rules and Regulations (6 questions) ;1. A (4AA-1.1) #What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 75 meter band? 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz ;2. B (4AA-1.2) #What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 40 meter band? 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz ;3. D (4AA-1.3) #What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 20 meter band? 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz ;4. C (4AA-1.4) #What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 15 meter band? 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz ;5. A (4AA-2.1) #What is meant by automatic retransmission? The retransmitting station is actuated by a received electrical signal The retransmitting station is actuated by a telephone control link The retransmitting station is actuated by a control operator The retransmitting station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse code ;6. D (4AA-2.2) #What is the term for the retransmission of signals by an amateur radio station whereby the retransmitting station is actuated solely by the presence of a received signal through electrical or electromechanical means, i.e., without any direct, positive action by the control operator? Automatic retransmission Simplex retransmission Manual retransmission Linear retransmission ;7. B (4AA-2.3) #Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station automatically retransmit programs or the radio signals of other amateur stations? Only when in repeater operation Only when the station licensee is present Only when the control operator is present Only during portable operation ;8. A (4AA-2.4) #What is meant by manual retransmission? A retransmitted signal that is not automatically controlled A retransmitted signal that is automatically controlled An OSCAR satellite transponder The theory behind operational repeaters ;9. D (4AA-3.1) #What is meant by repeater operation? Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are automatically retransmitted An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third party traffic An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point and a remotely controlled station Manual or simplex operation ;10. A (4AA-3.2) #What is a closed repeater? A repeater containing control circuitry that limits access to the repeater to members of a certain group A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access to any licensed amateur A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same frequency, a closed pair A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-in-Charge ;11. C (4AA-3.3) #What frequencies in the 10 meter band are available for repeater operation? 29.5-29.7 MHz 28.0-28.7 MHz 29.0-29.7 MHz 28.5-29.7 MHz ;12. D (4AA-3.4) #What determines the maximum effective radiated power a station in repeater operation may use? Frequency and antenna height above average terrain Repeaters are authorized 1500 watts power output at all times The percent modulation and emission type used Polarization and direction of major lobes ;13. C (4AA-3.5) #How is effective radiated power determined? By calculating the product of the transmitter power to the antenna and the antenna gain By measuring the output power of the final amplifier By dividing the final amplifier power by the feed-line losses By measuring the power delivered to the antenna ;14. A (4AA-3.6) #What is an open repeater? A repeater that contains no special control circuitry to limit access to any licensed amateur A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater group A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that it is available for use A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated ;15. D (4AA-3.7) #What frequencies in the 6 meter band are available for repeater operation? 52.00-54.00 MHz 51.00-52.00 MHz 50.25-52.00 MHz 52.00-53.00 MHz ;16. A (4AA-3.8) #What frequencies in the 2 meter band are available for repeater operation? 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz 144.50-148.00 MHz 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz 146.00-148.00 MHz ;17. B (4AA-3.9) #What frequencies in the 1.25 meter band are available for repeater operation? 220.50-225.00 MHz 220.25-225.00 MHz 221.00-225.00 MHz 223.00-225.00 MHz ;18. A (4AA-3.10) #What frequencies in the 0.70 meter band are available for repeater operation? 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz ;19. D (4AA-4.1) #What is meant by auxiliary operation? Radio communications for remotely controlling other amateur radio stations, for automatically relaying the signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations or for intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of stations Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that indicated on the station license for a period of more than three months Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 50.1 MHz Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 29.5 MHz ;20. A (4AA-4.2) #What are three uses for stations in auxiliary operation? Remote control of other amateur stations, automatically relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations Remote control of model craft and vehicles, automatically relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of stations Remote control of other amateur stations and of model craft and vehicles, manually relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations Operation for more than three months at a location more than 50 miles from the location listed on the station license, automatically relaying signals from other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations ;21. B (4AA-4.3) #A station in auxiliary operation may only communicate with which stations? Other amateur stations in the system of amateur stations shown on the system network diagram Stations in the public safety service Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control ;22. C (4AA-4.4) #What frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary operation? All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz ;23. D (4AA-5.1) #What is meant by remote control of an amateur radio station? Manual operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere than at the station transmitter Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical location other than that shown on the station license Automatic operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere than at the station transmitter An amateur radio station operating under automatic control ;24. A (4AA-5.2) #How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under remote control differ from one under local control? Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3 minutes if the control link malfunctions Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4 minutes if the control link malfunctions Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5 minutes if the control link malfunctions Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10 minutes if the control link malfunctions ;25. C (4AA-5.3) #If the control link for a station under remote control malfunctions, how long may the station continue to transmit? 3 minutes 5 seconds 10 minutes 5 minutes ;26. C (4AA-5.4) #What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of an amateur radio station? All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz ;27. D (4AA-5.5) #What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of a station in repeater operation? All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz ;28. A (4AA-6.1) #What is meant by automatic control of an amateur radio station? Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is radio communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of a control link between a control point and a remotely controlled station ;29. B (4AA-6.2) #How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be present at the control point at all times Under local control, there is no control operator Under automatic control, there is no control operator Under local control, a control operator is not required to be present at the control point at all times ;30. B (4AA-6.3) #Which amateur stations may be operated by automatic control? Stations in repeater operation Stations without a control operator Stations that do not have transmission-limiting timing devices Stations that transmit codes and cipher groups, as defined in FCC Part 97.117 ;31. C (4AA-7.1) #What is a control link? The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely controlled station The automatic control devices of an unattended station An automatically operated link A transmission-limiting timing device ;32. D (4AA-7.2) #What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control point and a remotely controlled station? Control link Tone link Wire control Remote control ;33. A (4AA-8.1) #What is a system network diagram? As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing each station in a system of stations, and its relationship to other stations and to the control point As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram describing a computer interface to an amateur radio station As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram demonstrating how a mobile amateur radio station used on board a ship or aircraft is electrically separate from and independent of all other radio equipment on board As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing the stages of an amateur transmitter or external radio frequency power amplifier ;34. B (4AA-8.2) #What type of diagram shows each station and its relationship to other stations in a network of amateur stations, and to the control point(s)? A system network diagram A control link diagram A radio network diagram A control point diagram ;35. C (4AA-9.1) #At what level of modulation must an amateur station in repeater operation transmit its identification? At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated transmission At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the repeater At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84 ;36. C (4AA-9.2) #At what level of modulation must an amateur station in auxiliary operation transmit its identification? At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated transmission At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the repeater At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84 ;37. B (4AA-9.3) #What additional station identification requirements apply to amateur stations in repeater operation? The letters "RPTR" must follow the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy The letters "AUX" must follow the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy The word "auxiliary" must be added after the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony The word "repeater" must be added after the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony ;38. A (4AA-9.4) #What additional station identification requirements apply to amateur stations in auxiliary operation? The word "auxiliary" must be transmitted at the end of the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony The letters "RPTR" must precede the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy The letters "AUX" must precede the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy The words "remote control" must be added after the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony ;39. B (4AA-10.1) #When is prior FCC approval required before constructing or altering an amateur station antenna structure? When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet When the antenna structure violates local building codes When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 150 feet high When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 100 feet high ;40. C (4AA-10.2) #What must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC before constructing or altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high? Prior approval An Environmental Impact Statement A Special Temporary Authorization An effective radiated power statement ;41. B (4AA-11.1) #How is antenna height above average terrain determined? The height of the center of radiation of the antenna above an averaged value of the elevation above sea level for surrounding terrain By an aerial survey The height of the antenna above the highest value of the elevation above sea level for surrounding terrain By measuring the highest point of the antenna above the lowest value of surrounding terrain ;42. A (4AA-11.2) #For a station in repeater operation transmitting on 146.94 MHz, what is the maximum ERP permitted for an antenna height above average terrain of more than 1050 feet? 100 watts 200 watts 400 watts 800 watts ;43. B (4AA-12.1) #What are business communications? Any transmission that facilitates the regular business or commercial affairs of any party Third party traffic that involves material compensation Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a commercial tow truck service An autopatch using a commercial telephone system ;44. C (4AA-12.2) #What is the term for a transmission or communication the purpose of which is to facilitate the regular business or commercial affairs of any party? Business communications Duplex autopatch Third party traffic that involves compensation Simplex autopatch ;45. D (4AA-12.3) #Under what conditions, if any, may business communications be transmitted by an amateur station? During an emergency When the total remuneration does not exceed $25 When the control operator is employed by the FCC When transmitting international third party traffic ;46. D (4AA-13.1) #What are the only types of messages that may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country? Personal remarks Call sign and signal reports Emergency messages Business messages ;47. B (4AA-13.2) #What are the limitations on international amateur radiocommunications regarding the types of messages transmitted? Technical or personal messages only Emergency communications only Business communications only Call sign and signal reports only ;48. C (4AA-14.1) #Under what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators accept payment for using their stations to send messages? Under no circumstances When employed by the FCC When passing emergency traffic When passing international third party traffic ;49. D (4AA-14.2) #Under what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an amateur station in repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication services to another party? Under no circumstances When the repeater is operating under portable power When the repeater is under local control During Red Cross or other emergency service drills ;50. A (4AA-15.1) #Who is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? The examiner The FCC The VEC Any Novice licensee ;51. B (4AA-15.2) #What must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove? The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute ;52. A (4AA-15.3) #Which telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, and the question mark ;53. C (4AA-16.1) #Who is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written examination? The test examiner The FCC Any Novice licensee The VEC ;54. D (4AA-16.2) #Where do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for preparing an Element 2 written examination? From FCC PR Bulletin 1035A From FCC PR Bulletin 1035C From FCC PR Bulletin 1035B From FCC PR Bulletin 1035D ;55. A (4AA-17.1) #Who is eligible for administering an examination for the Novice operator license? An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old ;56. B (4AA-17.2) #For how long must the volunteer examiner for a Novice operator examination retain the test papers? One year from the date of the examination Ten years from the date of the examination Twelve years from the date of the examination Until the license is issued ;57. C (4AA-17.3) #Where must the volunteer examiner for a Novice operator examination retain the test papers? With the volunteer examiner's station records With the examinee's station records With the VEC that issued the papers With the Volunteer Examiner Team Chief's station records ;58. B (4AA-18.1) #What is the minimum passing score on a written examination element for the Novice operator license? 74 percent, minimum 84 percent, minimum 70 percent, minimum 80 percent, minimum ;59. D (4AA-18.2) #For a 20 question Element 2 written examination, how many correct answers constitute a passing score? 15 or more 10 or more 12 or more 14 or more ;60. B (4AA-18.3) #In a telegraphy examination, how many characters are counted as one word? 5 2 8 10 ;61. C (4AA-19.1) #What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? 18 years old 16 years old 21 years old 13 years old ;62. A (4AA-19.2) #Under what circumstances, if any, may volunteer examiners be compensated for their services? Under no circumstances When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25 The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25 miles to the test site Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the examination session ;63. A (4AA-19.3) #Under what circumstances, if any, may a person whose amateur station license or amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a volunteer examiner? Under no circumstances Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation of suspension Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC ;64. B (4AA-19.4) #Under what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a company which is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur radio transmissions be a volunteer examiner? If the employee does not normally communicate with the manufacturing or distribution part of the company If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the company If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her customers If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and policies part of the company ;65. C (4AA-20.1) #What are the penalties for fraudulently administering examinations? Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed The examiner may be restricted to giving only Novice class exams ;66. D (4AA-20.2) #What are the penalties for administering examinations for money or other considerations? Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed The examiner may be restricted to administering only Novice class license exams ! 2 ;SUBELEMENT 4AB -- Operating Procedures (1 question) ;67. D (4AB-1.1) #What is facsimile? The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television The transmission of video by amateur television ;68. A (4AB-1.2) #What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? The modern standard is 240 lines per minute The modern standard is 50 lines per minute The modern standard is 150 lines per second The modern standard is 60 lines per second ;69. B (4AB-1.3) #What is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm ;70. B (4AB-1.4) #What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio? Facsimile Television Xerography ACSSB ;71. C (4AB-1.5) #In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted into voltage variations? With a photodetector With an LED With a Hall-effect transistor With an optoisolator ;72. D (4AB-2.1) #What is slow-scan television? The transmission of still pictures by radio The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper The transmission of moving pictures by radio ;73. B (4AB-2.2) #What is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan television? 15 lines per second 20 lines per minute 4 lines per minute 240 lines per minute ;74. C (4AB-2.3) #How many lines are there in each frame of an amateur slow-scan television picture? 120 30 60 180 ;75. C (4AB-2.4) #What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television picture? 1500 Hz 2300 Hz 2000 Hz 120 Hz ;76. D (4AB-2.5) #What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television picture? 2300 Hz 120 Hz 1500 Hz 2000 Hz ! 3 ;SUBELEMENT 4AC -- Radio Wave Propagation (2 questions) ;77. C (4AC-1.1) #What is a sporadic-E condition? Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trail#s at E-layer height Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height ;78. D (4AC-1.2) #What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively dense ionization develops seasonally at E layer heights? Sporadic-E Auroral propagation Ducting Scatter ;79. A (4AC-1.3) #In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent? The equatorial regions The arctic regions The northern hemisphere The polar regions ;80. B (4AC-1.4) #On which amateur frequency band is extended distant propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed? 6 meters 2 meters 20 meters 160 meters ;81. A (4AC-1.5) #What appears to be the major cause of the sporadic-E condition? Wind shear Sunspots Temperature inversions Meteors ;82. B (4AC-2.1) #What is a selective fading effect? A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations ;83. C (4AC-2.2) #What is the propagation effect called when phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission are experienced at the recovery station? Selective fading Faraday rotation Diversity reception Phase shift ;84. D (4AC-2.3) #What is the major cause of selective fading? Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations ;85. B (4AC-2.4) #Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading? FM and double sideband AM CW and SSB SSB and AMTOR SSTV and CW ;86. A (4AC-2.5) #How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective fading? It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect ;87. D (4AC-3.1) #What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications? CW signals have a fluttery tone The readability of SSB signals increases FM communications are clearer CW signals have a clearer tone ;88. C (4AC-3.2) #What is the cause of auroral activity? The emission of charged particles from the sun A high sunspot level A low sunspot level Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes ;89. B (4AC-3.3) #In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? North South East West ;90. D (4AC-3.4) #Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? At E-layer height At F-layer height In the equatorial band At D-layer height ;91. A (4AC-3.5) #Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation? CW and SSB SSB and FM FM and CW RTTY and AM ;92. D (4AC-4.1) #Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? Radio waves may be bent E-layer skip D-layer skip Auroral skip ;93. A (4AC-4.2) #How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? By approximately 1/3 the distance By approximately twice the distance By approximately one-half the distance By approximately four times the distance ;94. B (4AC-4.3) #To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited? Approximately 500 miles Approximately 1000 miles Approximately 1500 miles Approximately 2000 miles ;95. C (4AC-4.4) #What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away? Tropospheric ducting D-layer absorption Faraday rotation Moonbounce ;96. A (4AC-4.5) #What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with other particles? Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave Aurora is created Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance ! 4 ;SUBELEMENT 4AD -- Amateur Radio Practice (4 questions) ;97. B (4AD-1.1) #What is a frequency standard? A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency A net frequency A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz A device used to generate wideband random frequencies ;98. A (4AD-1.2) #What is a frequency-marker generator? A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency A sweep generator A broadband white noise generator A device used to generate wideband random frequencies ;99. B (4AD-1.3) #How is a frequency-marker generator used? To provide reference points on a receiver dial In conjunction with a grid-dip meter As the basic frequency element of a transmitter To directly measure wavelength ;100. A (4AD-1.4) #What is a frequency counter? A frequency measuring device A frequency marker generator A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use before automatic transmissions are made A broadband white noise generator ;101. D (4AD-1.5) #How is a frequency counter used? To measure frequency To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial To generate a frequency standard To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter ;102. C (4AD-1.6) #What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-1.0 ppm? 146.52 Hz 165.2 Hz 14.652 kHz 1.4652 MHz ;103. A (4AD-1.7) #What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-0.1 ppm? 14.652 Hz 0.1 MHz 1.4652 Hz 1.4652 kHz ;104. D (4AD-1.8) #What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-10 ppm? 1465.20 Hz 146.52 Hz 10 Hz 146.52 kHz ;105. D (4AD-1.9) #What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-1.0 ppm? 432.1 Hz 43.21 MHz 10 Hz 1.0 MHz ;106. A (4AD-1.10) #What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-0.1 ppm? 43.21 Hz 0.1 MHz 432.1 Hz 0.2 MHz ;107. C (4AD-1.11) #What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-10 ppm? 4321 Hz 10 MHz 10 Hz 432.1 Hz ;108. C (4AD-2.1) #What is a dip-meter? A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current A field strength meter An SWR meter A marker generator ;109. D (4AD-2.2) #Why is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators? It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit It can measure signal strength accurately It can measure frequency accurately It can measure transmitter output power accurately ;110. B (4AD-2.3) #How does a dip-meter function? Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector coil Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q ;111. D (4AD-2.4) #What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance ;112. B (4AD-2.5) #What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being checked? Inductive and capacitive Resistive and inductive Resistive and capacitive Strong field ;113. A (4AD-2.6) #How tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? As loosely as possible, for best accuracy As tightly as possible, for best accuracy First loose, then tight, for best accuracy With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked, for best accuracy ;114. B (4AD-2.7) #What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? A less accurate reading results Harmonics are generated Cross modulation occurs Intermodulation distortion occurs ;115. A (4AD-3.1) #What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments ;116. D (4AD-3.2) #What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a D'Arsonval movement type meter? Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance Calibration, coil impedance and meter size Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass ;117. B (4AD-3.3) #What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a frequency counter? Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base stability Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base stability Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic ;118. D (4AD-3.4) #How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved? By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency response By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical sweep rate By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency response ;119. C (4AD-3.5) #How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? By increasing the accuracy of the time base By using slower digital logic By improving the accuracy of the frequency response By using faster digital logic ;120. D (4AD-4.1) #What is the condition called which occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? Intermodulation interference Amplifier desensitization Neutralization Adjacent channel interference ;121. B (4AD-4.2) #How does intermodulation interference between two transmitters usually occur? When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead ;122. B (4AD-4.3) #How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line ;123. D (4AD-4.4) #What can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with an emission J3E transmitter? Distortion Reduced amplifier efficiency Increased intelligibility Sideband inversion ;124. B (4AD-4.5) #How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? By using a push-pull amplifier By using a push-push amplifier By operating class C By operating class AB ;125. C (4AD-5.1) #What is receiver desensitizing? A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down ;126. A (4AD-5.2) #What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band? Desensitizing Quieting Cross modulation interference Squelch gain rollback ;127. C (4AD-5.3) #What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? Desensitizing Intermodulation distortion Quieting Overloading ;128. C (4AD-5.4) #What causes receiver desensitizing? The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency Audio gain adjusted too low Squelch gain adjusted too high Squelch gain adjusted too low ;129. A (4AD-5.5) #How can receiver desensitizing be reduced? Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver Increase the transmitter audio gain Decrease the receiver squelch gain Increase the receiver bandwidth ;130. D (4AD-6.1) #What is cross-modulation interference? Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal ;131. B (4AD-6.2) #What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? Cross-modulation interference Intermodulation distortion Receiver quieting Capture effect ;132. A (4AD-6.3) #How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced? By installing a filter at the receiver By using a better antenna By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain By adjusting the pass-band tuning ;133. C (4AD-6.4) #What is the result of cross-modulation? The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals Receiver quieting Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier ;134. C (4AD-7.1) #What is the capture effect? The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal ;135. C (4AD-7.2) #What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one particular emission F3E signal by another emission F3E signal? Capture effect Desensitization Cross-modulation interference Frequency discrimination ;136. A (4AD-7.3) #With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced? FM SSB AM CW ! 5 ;SUBELEMENT 4AE -- Electrical Principles (10 questions) ;137. A (4AE-1.1) #What is reactive power? Wattless, non-productive power Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor Power lost because of capacitor leakage Power consumed in circuit Q ;138. D (4AE-1.2) #What is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors? Reactive power Effective power True power Peak envelope power ;139. A (4AE-1.3) #What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? Potential energy Amperes-joules Joules-coulombs Kinetic energy ;140. B (4AE-1.4) #What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances in series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them? Resonance Capacitance Conductance Resistance ;141. C (4AE-2.1) #What is resonance in an electrical circuit? The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance The highest frequency that will pass current The lowest frequency that will pass current The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum ;142. B (4AE-2.2) #Under what conditions does resonance occur in an electrical circuit? When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal When the power factor is at a minimum When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency ;143. D (4AE-2.3) #What is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an electrical circuit when the inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance? Resonance Reactive quiescence High Q Reactive equilibrium ;144. B (4AE-2.4) #What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? Approximately equal to the circuit resistance High, as compared to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to XL Approximately equal to XC ;145. A (4AE-2.5) #What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? High, as compared to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to XL Low, as compared to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to XC ;146. B (4AE-2.6) #What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? It is at a maximum It is at a minimum It is dc It is zero ;147. B (4AE-2.7) #What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum The current circulating in the parallel elements is dc The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero ;148. A (4AE-3.1) #What is the skin effect? The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance ;149. C (4AE-3.2) #What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF current flows along the surface of the conductor? Skin effect Layer effect Seeburg Effect Resonance ;150. A (4AE-3.3) #Where does practically all of RF current flow in a conductor? Along the surface In the center of the conductor In the magnetic field around the conductor In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center ;151. A (4AE-3.4) #Why does practically all of an RF current flow within a few thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface? Because of skin effect Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the DC resistance Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior Because of the ac-resistance of the conductor's self inductance ;152. C (4AE-3.5) #Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC? Because of skin effect Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies Because of the Heisenburg Effect Because conductors are non-linear devices ;153. B (4AE-4.1) #What is a magnetic field? A force set up when current flows through a conductor Current flow through space around a permanent magnet The force between the plates of a charged capacitor The force that drives current through a resistor ;154. D (4AE-4.2) #In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is flowing? In a direction determined by the left hand rule In the same direction as the current In a direction opposite to the current flow In all directions; omnidirectional ;155. C (4AE-4.3) #What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A capacitor A battery A transformer An inductor ;156. B (4AE-4.4) #What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? Joules Coulombs Watts Volts ;157. B (4AE-4.5) #What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the plates Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates ;158. A (4AE-4.6) #What is the dielectric constant for air? Approximately 1 Approximately 2 Approximately 4 Approximately 0 ;159. D (4AE-4.7) #What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? The amount of current The resistance divided by the current The ratio of the current to the resistance The diameter of the conductor ~1 ~ FIGURE 4AE-5-1 ~ ~O----------+----------+-----------+ ~ | | | ~ +-) | \ ~ ) ----- / ~ ) L ----- C \ 4.7 K ~ ) | / Ohms ~ +-) | \ ~ | | | ~O----------+----------+-----------+ ;160. C (4AE-5.1) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?~1 3.56 MHz 79.6 MHz 1.78 MHz 7.96 MHz ;161. B (4AE-5.2) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?i~1 1.78 MHz 1.99 kHz 1.99 MHz 1.78 kHz ;162. C (4AE-5.3) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?~1 7.12 MHz 3.18 MHz 3.18 kHz 7.12 kHz ;163. A (4AE-5.4) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?~1 10.1 MHz 63.7 MHz 10.1 kHz 63.7 kHz ;164. B (4AE-5.5) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?~1 14.5 MHz 13.1 MHz 14.5 kHz 13.1 kHz ;165. D (4AE-5.6) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?~1 17.8 MHz 19.9 kHz 17.8 kHz 19.9 MHz ;166. C (4AE-5.7) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?~1 21.3 MHz 2.84 MHz 28.4 MHz 2.13 MHz ;167. A (4AE-5.8) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?~1 23.7 MHz 23.7 kHz 35.4 kHz 35.4 MHz ;168. B (4AE-5.9) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?~1 28.1 MHz 28.1 kHz 49.7 MHz 49.7 kHz ;169. C (4AE-5.10) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?~1 53.1 MHz 17.7 MHz 17.7 kHz 53.1 kHz ~2 ~ FIGURE 4AE-5-2 ~ ()()()()() ~O------------------+ +---------+ ~ L | ~ \ ~ / ~ \ 47 ~ / Ohms ~ \ ~ | | | ~O---------------------| |-------------+ ~ | | ~ C ;170. A (4AE-5.11) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?~2 50.3 MHz 15.9 MHz 15.9 kHz 50.3 kHz ;171. B (4AE-5.12) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?~2 29.1 MHz 29.1 kHz 5.31 MHz 5.31 kHz ;172. C (4AE-5.13) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?~2 23.7 MHz 23.7 kHz 3.54 kHz 3.54 MHz ;173. D (4AE-5.14) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?~2 20.5 MHz 2.65 kHz 20.5 kHz 2.65 MHz ;174. A (4AE-5.15) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?~2 18.4 MHz 2.12 MHz 18.4 kHz 2.12 kHz ;175. B (4AE-5.16) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?~2 14.5 MHz 1.33 kHz 1.33 MHz 14.5 kHz ;176. C (4AE-5.17) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?~2 10.3 MHz 6.63 MHz 6.63 kHz 10.3 kHz ;177. D (4AE-5.18) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?~2 7.12 MHz 3.18 MHz 3.18 kHz 7.12 kHz ;178. A (4AE-5.19) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?~2 3.56 MHz 7.96 kHz 3.56 kHz 7.96 MHz ;179. B (4AE-5.20) #What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?~2 1.68 MHz 1.77 MHz 1.77 kHz 1.68 kHz ;180. A (4AE-5.21) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? 18.9 kHz 1.89 kHz 189 Hz 58.7 kHz ;181. D (4AE-5.22) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218? 16.5 kHz 58.7 kHz 606 kHz 47.3 kHz ;182. C (4AE-5.23) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? 47.3 kHz 211 kHz 16.5 kHz 21.1 kHz ;183. D (4AE-5.24) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218? 58.7 kHz 21.1 kHz 27.9 kHz 17 kHz ;184. A (4AE-5.25) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? 95 kHz 10.5 kHz 10.5 MHz 17 kHz ;185. D (4AE-5.26) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? 222.6 kHz 4.49 kHz 44.9 kHz 22.3 kHz ;186. B (4AE-5.27) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225? 44.9 kHz 4.49 kHz 22.3 kHz 223 kHz ;187. A (4AE-5.28) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195? 92.8 kHz 10.8 kHz 22.3 kHz 44.9 kHz ;188. C (4AE-5.29) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? 31.4 kHz 22.3 kHz 76.2 kHz 10.8 kHz ;189. D (4AE-5.30) #What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? 76.2 kHz 22.3 kHz 10.8 kHz 13.1 kHz ~3 ~ FIGURE 4AE-5-3 ~ ~O----------+----------+-----------+ ~ | | | ~ +-) | \ ~ ) ----- / ~ ) ----- \ ~ ) | / ~ +-) | \ ~ | | | ~O----------+----------+-----------+ ;190. A (4AE-5.31) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms?~3 75.1 7.51 71.5 0.013 ;191. B (4AE-5.32) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms?~3 43.1 4.31 13.3 0.023 ;192. C (4AE-5.33) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance is 180 ohms?~3 0.136 0.00735 7.35 13.3 ;193. D (4AE-5.34) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000 ohms?~3 31.9 7.35 0.0319 71.5 ;194. D (4AE-5.35) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms?~3 2.73 36.8 0.273 0.368 ;195. A (4AE-5.36) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms?~3 0.221 4.52 0.00452 22.1 ;196. B (4AE-5.37) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000 ohms?~3 39 22.1 25.6 0.0256 ;197. B (4AE-5.38) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance is 2,200 ohms?~3 32.2 0.031 31.1 25.6 ;198. D (4AE-5.39) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance is 220 ohms?~3 0.23 23 0.00435 4.35 ;199. A (4AE-5.40) #What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,800 ohms?~3 1.84 0.543 54.3 23 ~4 ~ FIGURE 4AE-6 ~ ,-. ~+--------------( ≈ )---------------+ ~| `-' | ~| | ~| Xc R Xl | ~+----||-----/\/\/\----+ +-----+ ~ ()()()() ;200. A (4AE-6.1) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms?~4 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current ;201. B (4AE-6.2) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms?~4 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ;202. C (4AE-6.3) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 ohms?~4 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ;203. B (4AE-6.4) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms?~4 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ;204. D (4AE-6.5) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms?~4 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ;205. B (4AE-6.6) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms?~4 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ;206. A (4AE-6.7) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and X1 is 75 ohms?~4 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ;207. D (4AE-6.8) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 ohms?~4 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ;208. D (4AE-6.9) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms?~4 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ;209. C (4AE-6.10) #What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and X1 is 25 ohms?~4 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current ;210. A (4AE-7.1) #Why would the rate at which electrical energy is used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current? Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between the current and voltage Because there are only resistances in the circuit Because there are no reactances in the circuit Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the current and voltage ;211. A (4AE-7.2) #In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor By dividing the apparent power by the power factor By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current ;212. C (4AE-7.3) #What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? 0.5 1.414 0.866 1.73 ;213. D (4AE-7.4) #What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? 0.707 0.866 1.0 0.5 ;214. C (4AE-7.5) #What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? 0.866 1.73 0.5 0.577 ;215. B (4AE-7.6) #How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 when the input is 100-VAC and 4-amperes is being drawn? 80 watts 400 watts 2000 watts 50 watts ;216. D (4AE-7.7) #How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 when the input is 200-VAC and 5-amperes is being drawn? 600 watts 200 watts 1000 watts 1600 watts ;217. B (4AE-8.1) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;218. C (4AE-8.2) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;219. D (4AE-8.3) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;220. A (4AE-8.4) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB operation feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;221. D (4AE-8.5) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? 100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;222. B (4AE-8.6) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;223. C (4AE-8.7) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;224. D (4AE-8.8) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;225. A (4AE-8.9) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? 317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ;226. D (4AE-8.10) #What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole ~5 ~ FIGURE 4AE-9 ~ +---------------+ +----/\/\/\/\------O + ~ | | | R3 ~ | \ | ~ | / | ~ | \ R1 | ~ | / | ~ | | | ~ --------- +--------O + --------- ~ V1 ----- A | V2 ----- B ~ | \ | ~ | / | ~ | \ R2 | ~ | / | ~ | | | ~ +---------------+--------O - +------------------O - ;227. B (4AE-9.1) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms?~5 R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts ;228. C (4AE-9.2) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms?~5 R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts ;229. C (4AE-9.3) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms?~5 R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts ;230. D (4AE-9.4) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms?~5 R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts ;231. C (4AE-9.5) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms?~5 R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts ;232. A (4AE-9.6) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms?~5 R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts ;233. B (4AE-9.7) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms?~5 R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts ;234. B (4AE-9.8) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms?~5 R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts ;235. C (4AE-9.9) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms?~5 R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts ;236. C (4AE-9.10) #In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms?~5 R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts ! 6 ;SUBELEMENT 4AF -- Circuit Components (6 questions) ;237. D (4AF-1.1) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier? ;238. A (4AF-1.2) #Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? Junction and point contact Electrolytic and junction Electrolytic and point contact Vacuum and point contact ;239. D (4AF-1.3) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode? ;240. C (4AF-1.4) #What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes? Voltage regulator and voltage reference Hot carrier and tunnel Varactor and rectifying Forward and reversed biased ;241. B (4AF-1.5) #What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? A constant voltage under conditions of varying current A constant current under conditions of varying voltage A negative resistance region An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage ;242. A (4AF-1.6) #What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? 2.4 volts to 200 volts 1.2 volts to 7 volts 3 volts to 2000 volts 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts ;243. C (4AF-1.7) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode? ;244. C (4AF-1.8) #What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A negative resistance region A high forward resistance A very high PIV A high forward current rating ;245. C (4AF-1.9) #What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? Tunnel diodes Point contact diodes Zener diodes Junction diodes ;246. D (4AF-1.10) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode? ;247. A (4AF-1.11) #What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A varactor diode A tunnel diode A silicon-controlled rectifier A Zener diode ;248. B (4AF-1.12) #What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode? Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current It has a negative resistance region It has a very high PIV ;249. D (4AF-1.13) #What is a common use of a varactor diode? As a voltage controlled capacitance As a constant current source As a constant voltage source As a voltage controlled inductance ;250. D (4AF-1.14) #What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors As balanced mixers in SSB generation As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit As a constant voltage reference in a power supply ;251. B (4AF-1.15) #What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? The junction temperature The peak inverse voltage The forward voltage The back EMF ;252. D (4AF-1.16) #How are junction diodes rated? Maximum forward current and PIV Maximum forward current and capacitance Maximum reverse current and PIV Maximum reverse current and capacitance ;253. C (4AF-1.17) #What is a common use for point contact diodes? As an RF detector As a constant current source As a constant voltage source As a high voltage rectifier ;254. D (4AF-1.18) #What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small semi-conductor die? Point contact diode Zener diode Varactor diode Junction diode ;255. C (4AF-1.19) #What is common use for PIN diodes? As an RF switch As a constant current source As a constant voltage source As a high voltage rectifier ;256. C (4AF-1.20) #What special type of diode is often use for RF switches, attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices? PIN diodes Tunnel diodes Varactor diodes Junction diodes ;257. C (4AF-2.1) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? ;258. B (4AF-2.2) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor? ;259. B (4AF-2.3) #What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? Base, collector and emitter Cathode, plate and grid Gate, source and sink Input, output and ground ;260. C (4AF-2.4) #What is the meaning of the term alpha with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of collector current with respect to emitter current The change of collector current with respect to base current The change of base current with respect to collector current The change of collector current with respect to gate current ;261. C (4AF-2.5) #What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor? Alpha Gamma Epsilon Beta ;262. A (4AF-2.6) #What is the meaning of the term beta with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of collector current with respect to base current The change of base current with respect to emitter current The change of collector current with respect to emitter current The change in base current with respect to gate current ;263. B (4AF-2.7) #What is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor? Beta Alpha Gamma Delta ;264. B (4AF-2.8) #What is the meaning of the term alpha cutoff frequency with regard to bipolar transistors? The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration ;265. B (4AF-2.9) #What is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor? Alpha cutoff frequency Corner frequency Beta cutoff frequency Alpha rejection frequency ;266. B (4AF-2.10) #What is the meaning of the term beta cutoff frequency with regard to a bipolar transistor? That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor ;267. A (4AF-2.11) #What is the meaning of the term transition region with regard to a transistor? An area of low charge density around the P-N junction The area of maximum P-type charge The area of maximum N-type charge The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type material ;268. A (4AF-2.12) #What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? The collector current is at its maximum value The collector current is at its minimum value The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value ;269. C (4AF-2.13) #What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off? No current flows from emitter to collector There is no base current The transistor is at its operating point Maximum current flows from emitter to collector ;270. C (4AF-2.14) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor? ;271. A (4AF-2.15) #What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? Base 1, base 2 and emitter Gate, cathode and anode Gate, base 1 and base 2 Gate, source and sink ;272. A (4AF-2.16) #For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated? Just below the saturation point Just above the saturation point At the saturation point At 1.414 times the saturation point ;273. B (4AF-2.17) #What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics? Silicon and germanium Silicon and gold Galena and germanium Galena and bismuth ;274. D (4AF-3.1) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier? ;275. A (4AF-3.2) #What are the three terminals of an SCR? Anode, cathode and gate Gate, source and sink Base, collector and emitter Gate, base 1 and base 2 ;276. A (4AF-3.3) #What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR? Conducting and nonconducting Oscillating and quiescent Forward conducting and reverse conducting NPN conduction and PNP conduction ;277. A (4AF-3.4) #When an SCR is in the triggered or on condition, its electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode and anode)? The junction diode The tunnel diode The hot-carrier diode The varactor diode ;278. D (4AF-3.5) #Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier? When it is gated "on" During a switching transition When it is used as a detector When it is gated "off" ;279. A (4AF-3.6) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC? ;280. A (4AF-3.7) #What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? TRIAC Bilateral SCR Unijunction transistor Field effect transistor ;281. B (4AF-3.8) #What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? Gate, anode 1 and anode 2 Emitter, base 1 and base 2 Base, emitter and collector Gate, source and sink ;282. B (4AF-4.1) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? ;283. C (4AF-4.2) #What is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting diode? 1.7 volts and 20 mA 60 volts and 20 mA 5 volts and 50 mA 0.7 volts and 60 mA ;284. B (4AF-4.3) #What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? Forward bias Reverse bias Zero bias Inductive bias ;285. A (4AF-4.4) #What are the advantages of using an LED? Low power consumption and long life High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source ;286. D (4AF-4.5) #What colors are available in LEDs? Red, green, orange, white and yellow Yellow, blue, red, brown and green Red, violet, yellow, white and green Violet, blue, yellow, orange and red ;287. C (4AF-4.6) removed ;#What is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp? ;288. B (4AF-4.7) #What type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio work? NE-2 NE-1 NE-3 NE-4 ;289. A (4AF-4.8) #What is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? Approximately 67 volts Approximately 5 volts Approximately 5.6 volts Approximately 110 volts ;290. D (4AF-4.9) #What is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? Approximately 48-V AC RMS Approximately 110-V AC RMS Approximately 5-V AC RMS Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS ;291. D (4AF-4.10) #How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF? A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency RF ;292. B (4AF-5.1) #What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for emission J3E? 2.1 kHz at -6 dB 6 kHz at -6 dB 500 Hz at -6 dB 15 kHz at -6 dB ;293. C (4AF-5.2) #What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for emission A3E? 6 kHz at -6 dB 1 kHz at -6 dB 500 Hz at -6 dB 15 kHz at -6 dB ;294. D (4AF-5.3) #What is a crystal lattice filter? A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals ;295. D (4AF-5.4) #What technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance crystal lattice filters? Etching and grinding Splitting and tumbling Tumbling and grinding Etching and splitting ;296. A (4AF-5.5) #What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice filter? The relative frequencies of the individual crystals The center frequency chosen for the filter The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter ! 7 ;SUBELEMENT 4AG -- Practical Circuits (10 questions) ;297. D (4AG-1.1) #What is a linear electronic voltage regulator? A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on" state A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions ;298. C (4AG-1.2) #What is a switching electronic voltage regulator? A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current A regulator that provides more than one output voltage A regulator that gives a ramp voltage as its output ;299. A (4AG-1.3) #What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A Zener diode A tunnel diode An SCR A varactor diode ;300. B (4AG-1.4) #What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source? A series regulator A constant current source A shunt regulator A shunt current source ;301. D (4AG-1.5) #What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications where the load on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant? A shunt regulator A constant current source A series regulator A shunt current source ;302. C (4AG-1.6) #To obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator? Approximately 6.0 volts Approximately 2.0 volts Approximately 3.0 volts Approximately 10.0 volts ;303. A (4AG-1.7) #What is the meaning of the term remote sensing with regard to a linear voltage regulator? The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to the load Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops The load connection is made outside the feedback loop The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage ;304. D (4AG-1.8) #What is a three-terminal regulator? A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors ;305. B (4AG-1.9) #What the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator? Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum output voltage Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum output current ;306. B (4AG-2.1) #What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle ;307. A (4AG-2.2) #What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? Class A Class B Class C Class D ;308. D (4AG-2.3) #What is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B amplifier? Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output for the entire input signal cycle Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle ;309. B (4AG-2.4) #What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the output essentially in 180 degree pulses? Class B Class A Class C Class D ;310. A (4AG-2.5) #What is a Class AB amplifier? Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the signal input cycle Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output is present for the entire input signal cycle Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle ;311. A (4AG-2.6) #What is the distinguishing feature of a Class C amplifier? Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output is present for the entire input signal cycle Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle ;312. C (4AG-2.7) #What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? Class C Class A Class B Class AB ;313. C (4AG-2.8) #Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? Class C Class A Class B Class AB ;314. A (4AG-2.9) #Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? Class A Class B Class C Class AB ;315. D (4AG-2.10) #Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? Class AB Class A Class B Class C ;316. B (4AG-3.1) #What is an L-network? A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor A network consisting entirely of four inductors A network used to generate a leading phase angle A network used to generate a lagging phase angle ;317. D (4AG-3.2) #What is a pi-network? A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors A Power Incidence network An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground ;318. B (4AG-3.3) #What is a pi-L-network? A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors A Phase Inverter Load network A network with only three discrete parts A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground ;319. D (4AG-3.4) #Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest harmonic suppression? Pi-L-network L-network Pi-network Inverse L-network ;320. C (4AG-3.5) #What are the three most commonly used networks to accomplish a match between an amplifying device and a transmission line? L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network M-network, pi-network and T-network T-network, M-network and Q-network L-network, M-network and C-network ;321. D (4AG-3.6) #How are networks able to transform one impedance to another? The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance and change the value of the resistive part of an impedance Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of an impedance The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an impedance ;322. B (4AG-3.7) #Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio? Pi-network L-network Constant-K Constant-M ;323. A (4AG-3.8) #Why is the L-network of limited utility in impedance matching? It matches a small impedance range It has limited power handling capabilities It is thermally unstable It is prone to self resonance ;324. D (4AG-3.9) #What is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna? Greater harmonic suppression Greater transformation range Higher efficiency Lower losses ;325. C (4AG-3.10) #Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? Pi-L-network L-network Pi-network Inverse-Pi network ;326. A (4AG-4.1) #What are the three general groupings of filters? High-pass, low-pass and band-pass Inductive, capacitive and resistive Audio, radio and capacitive Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce ;327. C (4AG-4.2) #What is a constant-K filter? A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of frequencies A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth ;328. A (4AG-4.3) #What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from the passband It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies It uses elliptic functions The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied ;329. D (4AG-4.4) #What is an m-derived filter? A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M" ;330. C (4AG-4.5) #What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? It has a maximally flat response over its passband A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies It only requires capacitors It requires only inductors ;331. B (4AG-4.6) #What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? It allows ripple in the passband It has a maximally flat response over its passband It only requires inductors A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies ;332. B (4AG-4.7) #When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency When the number of components must be minimized When high power levels must be filtered ;333. C (4AG-5.1) #What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses It must have a gain of less than 1 It must be neutralized It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input ;334. D (4AG-5.2) #What are three major oscillator circuits often used in amateur radio equipment? Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce Taft, Pierce and negative feedback Colpitts, Hartley and Taft Taft, Hartley and Pierce ;335. D (4AG-5.3) #How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator? Through a tapped coil Through a neutralizing capacitor Through a capacitive divider Through link coupling ;336. C (4AG-5.4) #How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator? Through a capacitive divider Through a tapped coil Through link coupling Through a neutralizing capacitor ;337. D (4AG-5.5) #How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator? Through capacitive coupling Through a tapped coil Through link coupling Through a capacitive divider ;338. D (4AG-5.6) #Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal? Pierce Negative feedback Hartley Colpitts ;339. A (4AG-5.7) #What is the piezoelectric effect? Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field The generation of electrical energy by the application of light Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light ;340. B (4AG-5.8) #What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? It doesn't require an LC tank circuit It is easy to neutralize It can be tuned over a wide range It has a high output power ;341. B (4AG-5.9) #Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO? Colpitts Pierce Hartley Negative feedback ;342. C (4AG-5.10) #Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO? It is stable The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance It can be used with or without crystal lock-in It has high output power ;343. D (4AG-6.1) #What is meant by the term modulation? A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached Carrier rejection through phase nulling A linear amplification mode ;344. B (4AG-6.2) #What are the two general categories of methods for generating emission F3E? The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator on the oscillator The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator on the final amplifier The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the oscillator ;345. C (4AG-6.3) #What is a reactance modulator? A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM signals A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM signals A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM signals A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM signals ;346. B (4AG-6.4) #What is a balanced modulator? A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal A modulator that produces a full carrier signal ;347. D (4AG-6.5) #How can an emission J3E signal be generated? By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter By driving a product detector with a DSB signal By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer ;348. D (4AG-6.6) #How can an emission A3E signal be generated? By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter By detuning a Hartley oscillator ;349. A (4AG-7.1) #How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined? Efficiency = (RF power out) / (DC power in) X 100% Efficiency = (RF power in) / (RF power out) X 100% Efficiency = (RF power in) / (DC power in) X 100% Efficiency = (DC power in) / (RF power in) X 100% ;350. B (4AG-7.2) #For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum tube Class C amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500-volts at the plate and 500-milliamperes plate current? 1500 ohms 2000 ohms 4800 ohms 480 ohms ;351. C (4AG-7.3) #For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum Class B amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 800-volts at the plate and 75-milliamperes plate current? 6794 ohms 679.4 ohms 60 ohms 10,667 ohms ;352. A (4AG-7.4) #For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum tube Class A operation what should the plate-load resistance be with 250-volts at the plate and 25-milliamperes plate current? 7692 ohms 3250 ohms 325 ohms 769.2 ohms ;353. B (4AG-7.5) #For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what should the load resistance be with 12-volts at the collector and 5 watts power output? 14.4 ohms 100.3 ohms 10.3 ohms 144 ohms ;354. B (4AG-7.6) #What is the flywheel effect? The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter is turned off The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops through the ionosphere ;355. C (4AG-7.7) #How can a power amplifier be neutralized? By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input By increasing the grid drive By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the output ;356. B (4AG-7.8) #What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level? Approximately 12 Approximately 120 Approximately 1200 Approximately 1.2 ;357. C (4AG-7.9) #How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier? By neutralization By tuning for maximum SWR By tuning for maximum power output By tuning the output ;358. D (4AG-7.10) #What is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier having an output pi-network? Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the loading capacitor ;359. B (4AG-8.1) #What is the process of detection? The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational The modulation of a carrier The mixing of noise with the received signal ;360. A (4AG-8.2) #What is the principle of detection in a diode detector? Rectification and filtering of RF Breakdown of the Zener voltage Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency ;361. C (4AG-8.3) #What is a product detector? A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies A detector used to detect cross-modulation products ;362. B (4AG-8.4) #How are emission F3E signals detected? By a frequency discriminator By a balanced modulator By a product detector By a phase splitter ;363. A (4AG-8.5) #What is a frequency discriminator? A circuit for detecting FM signals A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals An automatic bandswitching circuit An FM generator ;364. D (4AG-8.6) #What is the mixing process? The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation Distortion caused by auroral propagation ;365. C (4AG-8.7) #What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer circuit? The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies Two and four times the original frequency The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency ;366. B (4AG-8.8) #What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process? Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design Automatic squelching and increased selectivity Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity ;367. A (4AG-8.9) #What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit? Spurious mixer products are generated Mixer blanking occurs Automatic limiting occurs A beat frequency is generated ;368. B (4AG-9.1) #How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage As much gain as possible short of self oscillation Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage ;369. C (4AG-9.2) #Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage? To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator ;370. C (4AG-9.3) #What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? To improve the receiver's noise figure To provide most of the receiver gain To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC To develop the AGC voltage ;371. A (4AG-9.4) #What is an i-f amplifier stage? A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier A receiver demodulator A receiver filter A buffer oscillator ;372. C (4AG-9.5) #What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? Image rejection and selectivity Cross-modulation distortion and interference Interference to other services Noise figure and distortion ;373. D (4AG-9.6) #What is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? Image rejection Gain Tune out cross-modulation distortion Dynamic response ;374. B (4AG-9.7) #What is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? Selectivity Sensitivity Noise figure performance Squelch gain ~10 ~ FIGURE 4AG-10 +---------------+--------O + ~ | | ~ \ \ ~ / R1 / ~ \ \ ~ / . . . . | C2 Out ~ | . /-------+----------|(-------O ~ C1 | . |/ . ~O------|(------------+-----| . ~In | . |\ . ~ \ . >> . ~ / R2 . \---+---------+ ~ \ . . . | | ~ / \ --- ~ | / R3 --- C3 ~ | \ | ~ ----- | ----- ~ / / / ----- / / / ~ / / / ;375. C (4AG-10.1) #What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10?~10 Common emitter amplifier Switching voltage regulator Linear voltage regulator Emitter follower amplifier ;376. B (4AG-10.2) #In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?~10 Fixed bias Load resistors Self bias Feedback ;377. D (4AG-10.3) #In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1?~10 Input coupling Decoupling Output coupling Self bias ;378. D (4AG-10.4) #In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3?~10 Emitter bypass AC feedback Input coupling Power supply decoupling ;379. D (4AG-10.5) #In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3?~10 Self bias Fixed bias Emitter bypass Output load resistor ~11 ~ FIGURE 4AG-11 +---------------+--------+ ~ | | | ~ \ | --- C1 ~ / | --- ~ \ | | ~ / . . . . | ----- ~ | . /-------+ / / / ~ | . |/ . ~O------|(------------+-----| . ~ | . |\ . ~ \ . >> . C2 ~ / . \---+---------|(---O ~ \ . . . | ~ / \ ~ | / R ~ | \ ~ ----- | ~ / / / ----- ~ / / / ;380. B (4AG-11.1) #What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11?~11 Common-collector amplifier High-gain amplifier Linear voltage regulator Grounded-emitter amplifier ;381. A (4AG-11.2) #In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R?~11 Emitter load Fixed bias Collector load Voltage regulation ;382. D (4AG-11.3) #In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1?~11 Collector bypass Input coupling Output coupling Emitter bypass ;383. A (4AG-11.4) #In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2?~11 Output coupling Emitter bypass Input coupling Hum filtering ~12 ~ FIGURE 4AG-12 ~ O------------+----------+ Q1 +---------+-----------O +12 ~ | | \ / | | ~ | \ \ ^^^ | \ ~ --- C1 / \ / --- C3 / R2 ~ --- 4000 \ R1 ----------- --- .01 \ ~ | / | | / ~ | | | | | ~ ---- +-----------------+ ---- ---- ~/ / / | | / / / / / / ~ | | ~ C2 --- ,-----' ~ 4000 --- /\ D1 ~ | | ~ ---- ---- ~ / / / / / / ;384. C (4AG-12.1) #What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 Linear voltage regulator Switching voltage regulator Grounded emitter amplifier Emitter follower ;385. B (4AG-12.2) #What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 Voltage reference Line voltage stabilization Peak clipping Hum filtering ;386. C (4AG-12.3) #What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 It increases the current handling capability It increases the output ripple It provides a constant load for the voltage source It provides D1 with current ;387. D (4AG-12.4) #What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 It filters the supply voltage It resonates at the ripple frequency It provides fixed bias for Q1 It decouples the output ;388. A (4AG-12.5) #What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 It bypasses hum around D1 It is a brute force filter for the output To self resonate at the hum frequency To provide fixed DC bias for Q1 ;389. A (4AG-12.6) #What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 It prevents self-oscillation It provides brute force filtering of the output It provides fixed bias for Q1 It clips the peaks of the ripple ;390. C (4AG-12.7) #What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 It supplies current to D1 It provides a constant load to the voltage source It couples hum to D1 It bypasses hum around D1 ;391. D (4AG-12.8) #What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?~12 It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 It provides fixed bias for Q1 It provides fixed bias for D1 It decouples hum from D1 ;392. C (4AG-13.1) #What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 80 meter band? 100 picofarads 150 picofarads 200 picofarads 100 microfarads ;393. D (4AG-13.2) #What value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40 meter band? 5 microhenrys 200 microhenrys 150 microhenrys 5 millihenrys ;394. A (4AG-13.3) #What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 20 meter band? 64 picofarads 6 picofarads 12 picofarads 88 microfarads ;395. C (4AG-13.4) #What value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15 meter band? 4 microhenrys 2 microhenrys 30 microhenrys 15 microhenrys ;396. A (4AG-13.5) #What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 160 meter band? 78 picofarads 25 picofarads 405 picofarads 40.5 microfarads ! 8 ;SUBELEMENT 4AH -- Signals and Emissions (6 questions) ;397. A (4AH-1.1) #What is emission A3C? Facsimile RTTY ATV Slow Scan TV ;398. B (4AH-1.2) #What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A3C A3F F3F F3C ;399. C (4AH-1.3) #What is facsimile? The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means ;400. D (4AH-1.4) #What is emission F3C? Facsimile Voice transmission Slow Scan TV RTTY ;401. A (4AH-1.5) #What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? F3C A3C F3F A3F ;402. B (4AH-1.6) #What is emission A3F? Television RTTY SSB Modulated CW ;403. B (4AH-1.7) #What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? A3F F3F A3C F3C ;404. D (4AH-1.8) #What is emission F3F? Television Modulated CW Facsimile RTTY ;405. C (4AH-1.9) #What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? F3F A3F A3C F3C ;406. D (4AH-1.10) #What type of emission results when a single sideband transmitter is used for slow-scan television? J3F J3A F3F A3F ;407. C (4AH-2.1) #How can an emission F3E signal be produced? By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator ;408. D (4AH-2.2) #How can an emission A3E signal be produced? By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop ;409. A (4AH-2.3) #How can an emission J3E signal be produced? By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization ;410. B (4AH-3.1) #What is meant by the term deviation ratio? The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency ;411. C (4AH-3.2) #In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? Deviation ratio Deviation index Modulation index Modulation ratio ;412. D (4AH-3.3) #What is the deviation ratio for an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? 1.66 60 0.16 0.6 ;413. A (4AH-3.4) #What is the deviation ratio for an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? 2.14 0.214 0.47 47 ;414. B (4AH-4.1) #What is meant by the term modulation index? The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency The processor index The FM signal-to-noise ratio The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency ;415. D (4AH-4.2) #In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency? Modulation index FM compressibility Quieting index Percentage of modulation ;416. D (4AH-4.3) #How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with the modulated frequency? The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) ;417. A (4AH-4.4) #In an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? 3 0.3 3000 1000 ;418. B (4AH-4.5) #What is the modulation index of an emission F3E transmitter producing an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6-kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? 3 6000 2000 1/3 ;419. C (4AH-5.1) #What are electromagnetic waves? A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other ;420. D (4AH-5.2) #What is a wave front? A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave A voltage pulse in a conductor A current pulse in a conductor A voltage pulse across a resistor ;421. A (4AH-5.3) #At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? Approximately 300 million meters per second Approximately 468 million meters per second Approximately 186,300 feet per second Approximately 300 million miles per second ;422. B (4AH-5.4) #What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave? An electric field and a magnetic field An electric field and a current field An electric field and a voltage field A voltage field and a current field ;423. C (4AH-5.5) #Why do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great extent? Because of Eddy currents The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field ;424. D (4AH-6.1) #What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves travel in free space? Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and magnetic fields The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to its source ;425. A (4AH-6.2) #What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized? The electric field is parallel to the earth The magnetic field is parallel to the earth Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical ;426. B (4AH-6.3) #What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having circular polarization? The electric field rotates The electric field is bent into a circular shape The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna ;427. C (4AH-6.4) #When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Vertical Circular Horizontal Elliptical ;428. D (4AH-6.5) #When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Vertical Circular Horizontal Elliptical ;429. A (4AH-6.6) #When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic field? Horizontal Circular Elliptical Vertical ;430. B (4AH-6.7) #When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Horizontal Vertical Circular Elliptical ;431. B (4AH-7.1) #What is a sine wave? A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed A constant-voltage, varying-current wave A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner ;432. C (4AH-7.2) #How many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle? 2 times 180 times 4 times 360 times ;433. D (4AH-7.3) #How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? 360 degrees 90 degrees 270 degrees 180 degrees ;434. A (4AH-7.4) #What is the period of a wave? The time required to complete one cycle The number of degrees in one cycle The number of zero crossings in one cycle The amplitude of the wave ;435. B (4AH-7.5) #What is a square wave? A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal portions of the cycle time ;436. C (4AH-7.6) #What is a wave called which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level? A square wave A sine wave A cosine wave A rectangular wave ;437. D (4AH-7.7) #Which sine waves make up a square wave? The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics 0.707 times the fundamental frequency The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics ;438. A (4AH-7.8) #What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? Square wave Sine wave Cosine wave Tangent wave ;439. B (4AH-7.9) #What is a sawtooth wave? A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or vice versa) A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time at each level A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed ;440. C (4AH-7.10) #What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A sawtooth wave A cosine wave A square wave A sine wave ;441. D (4AH-7.11) #Which sine waves make up a sawtooth wave? The fundamental frequency and all harmonics The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics ;442. A (4AH-7.12) #What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A sawtooth wave A square wave A sine wave A cosine wave ;443. C (4AH-8.1) #What is the meaning of the term root mean square value of an AC voltage? The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of the peak AC voltage The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a peak AC voltage The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value ;444. C (4AH-8.2) #What is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a certain value of AC voltage? Root mean square Cosine voltage Power factor Average voltage ;445. D (4AH-8.3) #What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of a complex waveform? By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor By using a grid dip meter By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter By using an absorption wavemeter ;446. A (4AH-8.4) #What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? 117-VAC 331-VAC 82.7-VAC 165.5-VAC ;447. B (4AH-8.5) #What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? 165.5 volts 234 volts 117 volts 331 volts ;448. C (4AH-8.6) #What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? 331 volts 234 volts 117 volts 165.5 volts ;449. D (4AH-8.7) #What is the RMS voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine wave? 117-VAC 233-VAC 330-VAC 58.3-VAC ;450. A (4AH-8.8) #What is the RMS value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? 117-VAC 165-VAC 234-VAC 300-VAC ;451. C (4AH-9.1) #For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to average power during a modulation peak in an emission J3E signal? Approximately 2.5 to 1 Approximately 1.0 to 1 Approximately 25 to 1 Approximately 100 to 1 ;452. C (4AH-9.2) #In an emission J3E signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? The speech characteristics The frequency of the modulating signal The degree of carrier suppression The amplifier power ;453. C (4AH-9.3) #What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an emission F3E transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts? Approximately 2500 watts Approximately 900 watts Approximately 1765 watts Approximately 3000 watts ;454. B (4AH-9.4) #What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in an emission F1B transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts? Approximately 1250 watts Approximately 850 watts Approximately 1667 watts Approximately 2000 watts ;455. D (4AH-9.5) #What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an emission N0N transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? Approximately 1000 watts Approximately 250 watts Approximately 600 watts Approximately 800 watts ;456. D (4AH-10.1) #Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 160 meter band receiver? In the atmosphere In the detector Man-made noise In the receiver front end ;457. A (4AH-10.2) #Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 2 meter band receiver? In the receiver front end Man-made noise In the atmosphere In the ionosphere ;458. B (4AH-10.3) #Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25 meter band receiver? In the receiver front end In the audio amplifier In the ionosphere Man-made noise ;459. C (4AH-10.4) #Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70 meter band receiver? In the receiver front end In the atmosphere In the ionosphere Man-made noise ! 9 ;SUBELEMENT 4AI -- Antennas & Feedlines (5 questions) ;461. A (4AI-1.1) #What is meant by the term antenna gain? The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power of the transmitter The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing lines present) ;461. B (4AI-1.2) #What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna? Antenna gain Effective radiated power Conversion gain Peak effective power ;462. B (4AI-1.3) #What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well Antenna length divided by the number of elements The angle between the half-power radiation points The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements ;463. A (4AI-1.4) #How can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be determined? Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna ;464. C (4AI-2.1) #What is a trap antenna? An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of the presence of parallel LC networks An antenna for rejecting interfering signals A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions An antenna with a large capture area ;465. D (4AI-2.2) #What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? It may be used for multiband operation It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands It has high gain It minimizes harmonic radiation ;466. A (4AI-2.3) #What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna? It will radiate harmonics It can only be used for single band operation It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies It must be neutralized ;467. B (4AI-2.4) #What is the principle of a trap antenna? The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around the antenna "sees" a high impedance The traps increase the antenna gain ;468. C (4AI-3.1) #What is a parasitic element of an antenna? An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than from a transmission line An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element An element dependent on the antenna structure for support A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy ;469. D (4AI-3.2) #How does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field? By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric field By the RF current received from a connected transmission line By interacting with the earth's magnetic field By altering the phase of the current on the driven element ;470. A (4AI-3.3) #How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? It is about 5% longer It is about 5% shorter It is twice as long It is one-half as long ;471. B (4AI-3.4) #How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? It is about 5% shorter It is about 5% longer It is one-half as long It is twice as long ;472. C (4AI-4.1) #What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna? An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna Losses in the antenna elements and feed line The specific impedance of the antenna The resistance in the trap coils to received signals ;473. D (4AI-4.2) #What is the term used for an equivalent resistance which would dissipate the same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna? Radiation resistance Space resistance Loss resistance Transmission line loss ;474. A (4AI-4.3) #Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna ;475. B (4AI-4.4) #What are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna? The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the length/diameter ratio of the conductors Transmission line length and height of antenna It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant Sunspot activity and the time of day ;476. C (4AI-5.1) #What is a driven element of an antenna? The element fed by the transmission line Always the rearmost element Always the forwardmost element The element connected to the rotator ;477. B (4AI-5.2) #What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam antenna? 1/2 wavelength 1/4 wavelength 3/4 wavelength 1 wavelength ;478. A (4AI-5.3) #What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a transmitter through a transmission line? Driven element Director element Reflector element Parasitic element ;479. B (4AI-6.1) #What is meant by the term antenna efficiency? Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (total resistance) X 100% Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (transmission resistance) X 100% Efficiency = (total resistance) / (radiation resistance) X 100% Efficiency = (effective radiated power) / (transmitter output) X 100% ;480. C (4AI-6.2) #What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? Antenna efficiency Effective radiated power Radiation conversion loss Beamwidth ;481. D (4AI-6.3) #What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance Radiation resistance plus space impedance Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance ;482. A (4AI-6.4) #How can the antenna efficiency of a HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna? By installing a good ground radial system By isolating the coax shield from ground By shortening the vertical By lengthening the vertical ;483. B (4AI-6.5) #Why does a half-wave antenna operate at very high efficiency? Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation resistance Because it is non-resonant Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types of antennas ;484. C (4AI-7.1) #What is a folded dipole antenna? A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength piece of wire A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long A ground plane antenna A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance ;485. D (4AI-7.2) #How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna? It is greater It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth It is essentially the same It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole ;486. A (4AI-7.3) #What is the input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna? 300 ohms 72 ohms 50 ohms 450 ohms ;487. D (4AI-8.1) #What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance The index of shielding for coaxial cable The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum ;488. A (4AI-8.2) #What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum? Velocity factor Characteristic impedance Surge impedance Standing wave ratio ;489. B (4AI-8.3) #What is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable? 0.66 2.70 0.30 0.10 ;490. C (4AI-8.4) #What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? Dielectrics in the line The termination impedance The line length The center conductor resistivity ;491. B (4AI-8.5) #Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line ;492. B (4AI-9.1) #What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? 3.55 meters 20 meters 2.51 meters 0.25 meters ;493. B (4AI-9.2) #What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? 6.88 meters 10.5 meters 24 meters 50 meters ;494. C (4AI-9.3) #What is the physical length of a parallel antenna feedline which is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.82.) 8.7 meters 15 meters 24.3 meters 70.8 meters ;495. A (4AI-9.4) #What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feedline at 3.65 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.) Electrical length times 0.8 Electrical length divided by 0.8 80 meters 160 meters ;496. A (4AI-10.1) #In a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes? At the ends At the feed points Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end ;497. B (4AI-10.2) #In a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes? At the feed point At the ends Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end ;498. C (4AI-10.3) #At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? Maximum voltage and minimum current Equal voltage and current Minimum voltage and maximum current Minimum voltage and minimum current ;499. D (4AI-10.4) #At the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of voltage and current exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? Minimum voltage and maximum current Equal voltage and current Maximum voltage and minimum current Minimum voltage and minimum current ;500. A (4AI-11.1) #Why is the inductance required for a base loaded HF mobile antenna less than that for an inductance placed further up the whip? The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base The current is greater at the top The voltage is less at the top ;501. B (4AI-11.2) #What happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases ;502. C (4AI-11.3) #Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? To minimize losses To swamp out harmonics To maximize losses To minimize the Q ;503. D (4AI-11.4) #Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna? To tune out the capacitive reactance To improve reception To lower the losses To lower the Q ;504. A (4AI-12.1) #For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? Near the center of the vertical radiator As low as possible on the vertical radiator As close to the transmitter as possible At a voltage node ;505. B (4AI-12.2) #What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? It is decreased It is increased No change occurs It becomes flat ;506. C (4AI-12.3) #Why are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur stations? They are the most efficient radiators They are very broad banded They have high gain in all azimuthal directions They require no calculations ;507. D (4AI-12.4) #What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? Improved radiation efficiency Lower Q Greater structural strength Higher losses