4AA-1.1 19NWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 75 meter wavelength band? 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz A4AA-1.2 19NWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 40 meter wavelength band? 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz B4AA-1.3 19NWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 20 meter wavelength band? 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz D4AA-1.4 20NWhat are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 15 meter wavelength band? 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz C4AA-2.1 20NWhat is meant by automatic retransmission from a repeater station? The repeater is actuated by a received electrical signal The repeater is actuated by a telephone control link The repeater station is actuated by a control operator The repeater station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse code A4AA-2.2 20NWhat is the term for the operation of a repeater whereby the repeater station is actuated solely by the presence of a received signal through electrical or electromechanical means, without any direct, positive action by the control operator? Simplex retransmission Manual retransmission Linear retransmission Automatic retransmission D4AA-2.3 21NUnder what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station automatically retransmit programs or the radio signals of other amateur stations? Only when the station licensee is present Only if the station is a repeater or a space station Only when the control operator is present Only during portable operation B4AA-2.4 21NWhich of the following stations may not be automatically controlled? A station transmitting control signals to a model craft A station in beacon operation A station in auxiliary operation A station in repeater operation A4AA-3.1 21NWhat is meant by repeater operation? An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third party communications An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point and a remotely controlled station Manual or simplex operation Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are automatically retransmitted D4AA-3.2 21NWhat is a closed repeater? A repeater containing control circuitry that limits repeater access to certain users A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access to any licensed amateur A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same frequency, a closed pair A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-in-Charge A4AA-3.3 22NWhat frequencies in the 10 meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? 28.0-28.7 MHz 29.0-29.7 MHz 29.5-29.7 MHz 28.5-29.7 MHz C4AA-3.4 22NWhich of the following repeater operating and technical parameters are NOT the responsibility of the area frequency coordinator? The repeater effective radiated power The repeater transmit and receive frequencies The repeater Height Above Average Terrain (HAAT) The repeater control sign D4AA-3.5 23NWhat frequencies in the 23-cm wavelength band are available for repeater operation? 1270-1300 MHz 1270-1295 MHz 1240-1300 MHz Repeater operation is not permitted in the 23-cm wavelength band C4AA-3.6 23NWhat is an open repeater? A repeater that does not contain control circuitry that limits repeater access to certain users A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater group A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that it is available for use A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated A4AA-3.7 24NWhat frequencies in the 6-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? 51.00-52.00 MHz 50.25-52.00 MHz 52.00-53.00 MHz 51.00-54.00 MHz D4AA-3.8 24NWhat frequencies in the 2-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz 144.50-148.00 MHz 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz 146.00-148.00 MHz A4AA-3.9 24NWhat frequencies in the 1.25-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? 220.25-225.00 MHz 220.50-225.00 MHz 221.00-225.00 MHz 223.00-225.00 MHz B4AA-3.10 24NWhat frequencies in the 0.70-meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation? 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz A4AA-4.1 24NWhat is meant by auxiliary station operation? Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that indicated on the station license for a period of more than three months Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 50.1 MHz Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 29.5 MHz Transmission of communications point-to-point within a system of cooperating amateur stations D4AA-4.2 25NWhat is one use for a station in auxiliary operation? Point-to-point radio communications within a system of cooperating amateur stations Remote control of model craft Passing of international third-party communications The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts A4AA-4.3 25NA station in auxiliary operation may only communicate with which stations? Stations in the public safety service Other amateur stations within a system of cooperating amateur stations Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control B4AA-4.4 25NWhat frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary operation? All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz C4AA-5.1 25NWhat is meant by REMOTE CONTROL of an amateur radio station? Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical location other than that shown on the station license Automatic operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere than at the station transmitter An amateur radio station operating under automatic control A control operator indirectly manipulating the operating adjustments in the station through a control link D4AA-5.2 26NWhat is one responsibility of a control operator of a station under remote control? Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3 minutes if the control link malfunctions Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4 minutes if the control link malfunctions Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5 minutes if the control link malfunctions Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10 minutes if the control link malfunctions A4AA-5.3 26NIf the control link for a station under remote control malfunctions, there must be a provision to limit transmission to what time length? 5 seconds 10 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes C4AA-5.4 26NWhat frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of an amateur radio station? All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz C4AA-5.5 26NWhat frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of a station in repeater operation? All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz D4AA-6.1 27NWhat is meant by AUTOMATIC CONTROL of an amateur radio station? The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point Radio communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times The use of a control link between a control point and a remotely controlled station A4AA-6.2 27NHow do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? Under local control, there is no control operator Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be present at a control point Under automatic control, there is no control operator Under local control, a control operator is not required to be present at the control point at all times B4AA-6.3 27NWhich of the following amateur stations may be operated by automatic control? Stations without a control operator Stations in repeater operation Stations under remote control Stations controlling model craft B4AA-7.1 27NWhat is a control link? The automatic-control devices of an unattended station An automatically operated link The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely controlled station A transmission-limiting timing device C4AA-7.2 28NWhat is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control point and a remotely controlled station? Tone link Wire control Remote control Control link D4AA-8.1 28NWhat is meant by local control? The use of a control operator who directly manipulates the operating adjustments The OSCAR satellite transponder A carrier operated relay system The use of a portable handheld to turn on or off the repeater A4AA-8.2 28NWho may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? Any amateur operator Any Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator Any General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator Any Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator B4AA-9.1 28NHow may a repeater station be identified? By a burst of digitized information Only voice may be used for identification By CW or voice Only CW may be used for identification C4AA-9.2 28NWhen a repeater station is identified in Morse code using an automatic keying device, what is the maximum code speed permitted? 13 words per minute 30 words per minute 20 words per minute There is no limitation C4AA-9.3 28NHow often must a beacon station be identified? Every eight minutes Only at the end of the series of transmissions At the beginning of a series of transmissions At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of activity D4AA-9.4 29NWhen may a repeater be identified using digital codes? Any time that particular code is used for at least part of the communication Digital identification is not allowed Only voice may be allowed No identification is needed in digital transmissions A4AA-10.1 29NWhen is prior FCC approval required before constructing or altering an amateur station antenna structure? When the antenna structure violates local building codes When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 150 feet high When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 100 feet high B4AA-10.2 29NWhat must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC before constructing or altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high? An Environmental Impact Statement A Special Temporary Authorization Prior approval An effective radiated power statement C4AA-11.1 29NWithout special FCC approval, what maximum height above ground level (excluding airport proximity effects) is permitted for any amateur antenna support structure, including the radiating elements, tower, supports, etc.? 46 m (150 feet) 61 m (200 feet) 76 m (250 feet) 91 m (300 feet) B4AA-11.2 30NFrom what government agencies must permission be obtained if you wish to erect an amateur antenna structure that exceeds 200 feet above ground level? Federal Aviation Administration and Federal Communications Commission Environmental Protection Agency and Federal Communications Commission Federal Aviation Administration and Environmental Protection Agency Environmental Protection Agency and National Aeronautics and Space Administration A4AA-12.1 30NWhich of the following types of amateur communications is NOT a "prohibited transmission" as defined in Part 97? Transmission of messages into a disaster area for hire or for material compensation Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a commercial tow truck service Transmission of communications that facilitate the regular business or commercial affairs of any party Transmission of communications concerning moving, supplying, and quartering participants in a charity event as long as the sponsoring charity is the principal beneficiary of such communications, not the publicB4AA-12.2 30NMay an amateur operator inform other amateur operators of the availability of apparatus for sale or trade over the airwaves? You are not allowed to sell or trade equipment over the air You are allowed to derive a profit by buying or selling equipment on the air on a regular basis This is a permissible activity if the apparatus can normally be used at an amateur station and is not done for profit by the offering individual on a regular basisThis is allowed only if you also give the serial number of the equipment C4AA-12.3 31NUnder what conditions, if any, may communications be transmitted to a commercial business by an amateur station? When the total remuneration does not exceed $25 When the control operator is employed by the FCC When transmitting international third-party communications When the immediate safety of human life or immediate protection of property is involved D4AA-13.1 31NWhat are the only types of messages that may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country? Supplies needed, on a routine schedule Emergency messages or business messages Business messages or messages of a technical nature Personal remarks, tests, or messages of a technical nature D4AA-13.2 31NWhat are the limitations on international amateur radio communications regarding the types of messages transmitted? Emergency communications only Technical or personal messages only Business communications only Call sign and signal reports only B4AA-14.1 31NUnder what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators accept payment for using their own stations (other than a club station) to send messages? When employed by the FCC When passing emergency traffic Under no circumstances When passing international third-party traffic C4AA-14.2 32NUnder what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an amateur station in repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication services to another party? When the repeater is operating under portable power When the repeater is under local control During Red Cross or other emergency service drills Under no circumstances D4AA-15.1 32NWho is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier The FCC The VEC Any Novice licensee A4AA-15.2 32NWhat must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove? The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute B4AA-15.3 32NWhich telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, and the question mark A4AA-16.1 32NWho is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written examination? The FCC Any Novice licensee The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier The VEC C4AA-16.2 33NWhere do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for preparing an Element 2 written examination? They must prepare the examination from material contained in the ARRL Handbook or obtain a question set from the FCC They must prepare the examination from material contained in a question pool maintained by the FCC in Washington They must prepare the examination from material contained in a question pool maintained by the local FCC field office They must prepare the examination from a common question pool maintained by the VECs or obtain a question set from a supplier D4AA-17.1 33NWho is eligible for administering an examination for the Novice operator license? An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old A4AA-17.2 33NWithin how many days after the administration of a successful Novice examination must the examiners submit the application to the FCC? Within one week of the administration date Within 10 days of the administration date Within 5 days of the administration date Within 30 days of the administration date B4AA-17.3 33NWhere must the completed Form 610 be submitted after the administration of a successful Novice examination? To the nearest FCC Field Office To the FCC in Washington, DC To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA To any VEC C4AA-18.1 34NWhat is the minimum passing score on a written examination element for the Novice operator license? A minimum of 19 correct answers A minimum of 22 correct answers A minimum of 21 correct answers A minimum of 24 correct answers B4AA-18.2 34NHow many questions must an Element 2 written examination contain? 25 50 40 30 D4AA-18.3 34NIn a telegraphy examination, how many characters are counted as one word? 2 5 8 10 B4AA-19.1 34NWhat is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? 16 years old 21 years old 18 years old 13 years old C4AA-19.2 34NUnder what circumstances, if any, may volunteer examiners be compensated for their services? Under no circumstances When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25 The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25 miles to the test site Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the examination session A4AA-19.3 35NUnder what circumstances, if any, may a person whose amateur station license or amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a volunteer examiner? Under no circumstances Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation of suspension Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC A4AA-19.4 35NUnder what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a company which is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur radio transmissions be a volunteer examiner? If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the company If the employee does not normally communicate with the manufacturing or distribution part of the company If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her customers If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and policies part of the company B4AA-20.1 35NWhat are the penalties for fraudulently administering examinations? The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months The VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the operator's license suspended The VE may be restricted to administrating only Novice class license examinations C4AA-20.2 36NWhat are the penalties for administering examinations for money or other considerations? The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months T VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed The VE will be restricted to administering only Novice class license examinations The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the operator's license suspended D4AB-1.1 36NWhat is FACSIMILE? The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television The transmission of video by amateur television The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper D4AB-1.2 36NWhat is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? The modern standard is 240 lines per minute The modern standard is 50 lines per minute The modern standard is 150 lines per second The modern standard is 60 lines per second A4AB-1.3 37NWhat is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm B4AB-1.4 37NWhat is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio? Television Facsimile Xerography ACSSB B4AB-1.5 37NIn facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted into voltage variations? With an LED With a Hall-effect transistor With a photodetector With an optoisolator C4AB-2.1 37NWhat is SLOW-SCAN television? The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper The transmission of moving pictures by radio The transmission of still pictures by radio D4AB-2.2 37NWhat is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan television? 20 lines per minute 15 lines per second 4 lines per minute 240 lines per minute B4AB-2.3 37NHow many lines are there in each frame of an amateur slow-scan television picture? 30 60 120 180 C4AB-2.4 38NWhat is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television picture? 2300 Hz 2000 Hz 1500 Hz 120 Hz C4AB-2.5 38NWhat is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television picture? 120 Hz 1500 Hz 2000 Hz 2300 Hz D4AC-1.1 38NWhat is a SPORADIC-E condition? Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-layer height Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height C4AC-1.2 39NWhat is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E layer heights? Auroral propagation Ducting Scatter Sporadic-E D4AC-1.3 39NIn what region of the world is SPORADIC-E most prevalent? The equatorial regions The arctic regions The northern hemisphere The polar regions A4AC-1.4 39NOn which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed? 2 meters 6 meters 20 meters 160 meters B4AC-1.5 40NWhat appears to be the major cause of the SPORADIC-E condition? Wind shear Sunspots Temperature inversions Meteors A4AC-2.1 40NWhat is a SELECTIVE FADING effect? A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving stationA fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations B4AC-2.2 40NWhat is the propagation effect called when phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission are experienced at the recovery station? Faraday rotation Diversity reception Selective fading Phase shift C4AC-2.3 40NWhat is the major cause of selective fading? Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station D4AC-2.4 41NWhich emission modes suffer the most from SELECTIVE FADING? CW and SSB FM and double sideband AM SSB and AMTOR SSTV and CW B4AC-2.5 41NHow does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect SELECTIVE FADING? It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect A4AC-3.1 41NWhat effect does AURORAL ACTIVITY have upon radio communications? The readability of SSB signals increases FM communications are clearer CW signals have a clearer tone CW signals have a fluttery tone D4AC-3.2 41NWhat is the cause of AURORAL ACTIVITY? A high sunspot level A low sunspot level The emission of charged particles from the sun Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes C4AC-3.3 42NIn the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? South North East West B4AC-3.4 42NWhere in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? At F-layer height In the equatorial band At D-layer height At E-layer height D4AC-3.5 42NWhich emission modes are best for auroral propagation? CW and SSB SSB and FM FM and CW RTTY and AM A4AC-4.1 42NWhy does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? E-layer skip D-layer skip Auroral skip Radio waves may be bent D4AC-4.2 43NHow much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? By approximately 15% of the distance By approximately twice the distance By approximately one-half the distance By approximately four times the distance A4AC-4.3 43NTo what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited? Approximately 1000 miles Approximately 500 miles Approximately 1500 miles Approximately 2000 miles B4AC-4.4 43NWhat propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away? D-layer absorption Faraday rotation Tropospheric ducting Moonbounce C4AC-4.5 44NWhat happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with other particles? Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave Aurora is created Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance A4AD-1.1 44NWhat is a FREQUENCY STANDARD? A net frequency A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz A device used to generate wideband random frequencies B4AD-1.2 44NWhat is a FREQUENCY-MARKER GENERATOR? A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency A sweep generator A broadband white noise generator A device used to generate wideband random frequencies A4AD-1.3 44NHow is a frequency-marker generator used? In conjunction with a grid-dip meter To provide reference points on a receiver dial As the basic frequency element of a transmitter To directly measure wavelength B4AD-1.4 45NWhat is a FREQUENCY COUNTER? A frequency measuring device A frequency marker generator A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use before automatic transmissions are made A broadband white noise generator A4AD-1.5 45NHow is a frequency counter used? To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial To generate a frequency standard To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter To measure frequency D4AD-1.6 45NWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? 165.2 Hz 14.652 kHz 146.52 Hz 1.4652 MHz C4AD-1.7 46NWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? 14.652 Hz 0.1 MHz 1.4652 Hz 1.4652 kHz A4AD-1.8 46NWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? 146.52 Hz 10 Hz 146.52 kHz 1465.20 Hz D4AD-1.9 46NWhat is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? 43.21 MHz 10 Hz 1.0 MHz 432.1 Hz D4AD-1.10 46NWhat is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? 43.21 Hz 0.1 MHz 432.1 Hz 0.2 MHz A4AD-1.11 47NWhat is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? 10 MHz 10 Hz 4321 Hz 432.1 Hz C4AD-2.1 47NWhat is a DIP-METER? A field strength meter An SWR meter A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current A marker generator C4AD-2.2 47NWhy is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators? It can measure signal strength accurately It can measure frequency accurately It can measure transmitter output power accurately It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit D4AD-2.3 48NHow does a dip-meter function? Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector coil Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q B4AD-2.4 48NWhat two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency D4AD-2.5 48NWhat types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being checked? Resistive and inductive Inductive and capacitive Resistive and capacitive Strong field B4AD-2.6 48NHow tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? As loosely as possible, for best accuracy As tightly as possible, for best accuracy First loose, then tight, for best accuracy With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked, for best accuracy A4AD-2.7 48NWhat happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? Harmonics are generated A less accurate reading results Cross modulation occurs Intermodulation distortion occurs B4AD-3.1 49NWhat factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments A4AD-3.2 49NWhat factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a D'Arsonval movement type meter? Calibration, coil impedance and meter size Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance D4AD-3.3 49NWhat factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a frequency counter? Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base stability Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base stability Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic B4AD-3.4 49NHow can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved? By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical sweep rate By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency response By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency response D4AD-3.5 50NHow can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? By using slower digital logic By improving the accuracy of the frequency response By increasing the accuracy of the time base By using faster digital logic C4AD-4.1 50NWhat is the condition called when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated?Amplifier desensitization Neutralization Adjacent channel interference Intermodulation interference D4AD-4.2 50NHow does INTERMODULATION INTERFERENCE between two transmitters usually occur? When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead B4AD-4.3 50NHow can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line B4AD-4.4 51NWhat can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? Reduced amplifier efficiency Increased intelligibility Sideband inversion Distortion D4AD-4.5 51NHow can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? By using a push-push amplifier By using a push-pull amplifier By operating class C By operating class AB B4AD-5.1 51NWhat is RECEIVER DESENSITIZING? A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down C4AD-5.2 52NWhat is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band? Desensitizing Quieting Cross modulation interference Squelch gain rollback A4AD-5.3 52NWhat is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? Intermodulation distortion Quieting Desensitizing Overloading C4AD-5.4 52NWhat causes RECEIVER DESENSITIZING? Audio gain adjusted too low Squelch gain adjusted too high The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency Squelch gain adjusted too low C4AD-5.5 52NHow can RECEIVER DESENSITIZING be reduced? Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver Increase the transmitter audio gain Decrease the receiver squelch gain Increase the receiver bandwidth A4AD-6.1 52NWhat is CROSS-MODULATION INTERFERENCE? Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal D4AD-6.2 53NWhat is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? Intermodulation distortion Cross-modulation interference Receiver quieting Capture effect B4AD-6.3 53NHow can CROSS-MODULATION in a receiver be reduced? By installing a filter at the receiver By using a better antenna By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain By adjusting the pass-band tuning A4AD-6.4 53NWhat is the result of CROSS-MODULATION? A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals Receiver quieting The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier C4AD-7.1 53NWhat is the CAPTURE EFFECT? All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal C4AD-7.2 54NWhat is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal? Desensitization Cross-modulation interference Capture effect Frequency discrimination C4AD-7.3 54NWith which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced? FM SSB AM CW A4AE-1.1 54NWhat is REACTIVE POWER? Wattless, non-productive power Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor Power lost because of capacitor leakage Power consumed in circuit Q A4AE-1.2 54NWhat is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors? Effective power True power Peak envelope power Reactive power D4AE-1.3 54NWhat is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? Potential energy Amperes-joules Joules-coulombs Kinetic energy A4AE-1.4 55NWhat is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances in series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them? Capacitance Resonance Conductance Resistance B4AE-2.1 55NWhat is RESONANCE in an electrical circuit? The highest frequency that will pass current The lowest frequency that will pass current The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum C4AE-2.2 56NUnder what conditions does resonance occur in an electrical circuit? When the power factor is at a minimum When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency B4AE-2.3 56NWhat is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an electrical circuit when the inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance? Reactive quiescence High Q Reactive equilibrium Resonance D4AE-2.4 56NWhat is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? High, as compared to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to XL Approximately equal to XC B4AE-2.5 56NWhat is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? Approximately equal to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to XL Low, as compared to the circuit resistance Approximately equal to XC A4AE-2.6 56NWhat is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? It is at a minimum It is at a maximum It is DC It is zero B4AE-2.7 57NWhat is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum The current circulating in the parallel elements is DC The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero B4AE-3.1 57NWhat is the SKIN EFFECT? The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance A4AE-3.2 57NWhat is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF current flows along the surface of the conductor? Layer effect Seeburg Effect Skin effect Resonance C4AE-3.3 58NWhere does practically all of the RF current flow in a conductor? Along the surface In the center of the conductor In the magnetic field around the conductor In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center A4AE-3.4 58NWhy does practically all of an RF current flow within a few thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface? Because of skin effect Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the DC resistance Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior Because of the AC-resistance of the conductor's self inductance A4AE-3.5 58NWhy is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC? Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies Because of the Heisenburg Effect Because of skin effect Because conductors are non-linear devices C4AE-4.1 58NWhat is a MAGNETIC FIELD? Current flow through space around a permanent magnet A force set up when current flows through a conductor The force between the plates of a charged capacitor The force that drives current through a resistor B4AE-4.2 58NIn what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is flowing? In the same direction as the current In a direction opposite to the current flow In all directions; omnidirectional In a direction determined by the left hand rule D4AE-4.3 59NWhat device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A battery A transformer A capacitor An inductor C4AE-4.4 59NWhat is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? Coulombs Joules Watts Volts B4AE-4.5 60NWhat factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the plates Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates B4AE-4.6 60NWhat is the dielectric constant for air? Approximately 1 Approximately 2 Approximately 4 Approximately 0 A4AE-4.7 60NWhat determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? The resistance divided by the current The ratio of the current to the resistance The diameter of the conductor The amount of current D4AE-5.1 61YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? 79.6 MHz 1.78 MHz 3.56 MHz 7.96 MHz C4AE-5.2 61YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? 1.99 kHz 1.78 MHz 1.99 MHz 1.78 kHz B4AE-5.3 62YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? 3.18 MHz 3.18 kHz 7.12 MHz 7.12 kHz C4AE-5.4 62YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? 10.1 MHz 63.7 MHz 10.1 kHz 63.7 kHz A4AE-5.5 62YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? 13.1 MHz 14.5 MHz 14.5 kHz 13.1 kHz B4AE-5.6 62YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads? 19.9 kHz 17.8 kHz 19.9 MHz 17.8 MHz D4AE-5.7 62YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads? 2.84 MHz 28.4 MHz 21.3 MHz 2.13 MHz C4AE-5.8 63YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? 23.7 MHz 23.7 kHz 35.4 kHz 35.4 MHz A4AE-5.9 63YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads? 28.1 kHz 28.1 MHz 49.7 MHz 49.7 kHz B4AE-5.10 63YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads? 17.7 MHz 17.7 kHz 53.1 MHz 53.1 kHz C4AE-5.11 63YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads? 50.3 MHz 15.9 MHz 15.9 kHz 50.3 kHz A4AE-5.12 64YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? 29.1 kHz 29.1 MHz 5.31 MHz 5.31 kHz B4AE-5.13 64YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads? 23.7 kHz 3.54 kHz 23.7 MHz 3.54 MHz C4AE-5.14 64YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads? 2.65 kHz 20.5 kHz 2.65 MHz 20.5 MHz D4AE-5.15 64YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads? 18.4 MHz 2.12 MHz 18.4 kHz 2.12 kHz A4AE-5.16 65YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? 1.33 kHz 14.5 MHz 1.33 MHz 14.5 kHz B4AE-5.17 65YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads? 6.63 MHz 6.63 kHz 10.3 MHz 10.3 kHz C4AE-5.18 65YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads? 3.18 MHz 3.18 kHz 7.12 kHz 7.12 MHz D4AE-5.19 65YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? 3.56 MHz 7.96 kHz 3.56 kHz 7.96 MHz A4AE-5.20 66YWhat is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads? 1.77 MHz 1.68 MHz 1.77 kHz 1.68 kHz B4AE-5.21 66NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? 18.9 kHz 1.89 kHz 189 Hz 58.7 kHz A4AE-5.22 66NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218? 58.7 kHz 606 kHz 47.3 kHz 16.5 kHz D4AE-5.23 67NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? 211 kHz 16.5 kHz 47.3 kHz 21.1 kHz C4AE-5.24 67NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218? 21.1 kHz 27.9 kHz 17 kHz 58.7 kHz D4AE-5.25 67NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? 95 kHz 10.5 kHz 10.5 MHz 17 kHz A4AE-5.26 68NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? 4.49 kHz 44.9 kHz 22.3 kHz 222.6 kHz D4AE-5.27 68NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225? 4.49 kHz 44.9 kHz 22.3 kHz 223 kHz B4AE-5.28 68NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195? 92.8 kHz 10.8 kHz 22.3 kHz 44.9 kHz A4AE-5.29 68NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? 22.3 kHz 76.2 kHz 31.4 kHz 10.8 kHz C4AE-5.30 68NWhat is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? 22.3 kHz 10.8 kHz 13.1 kHz 76.2 kHz D4AE-5.31 69YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms? 75.1 7.51 71.5 0.013 A4AE-5.32 69YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms? 4.31 43.1 13.3 0.023 B4AE-5.33 70YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance is 180 ohms? 0.00735 7.35 0.136 13.3 C4AE-5.34 70YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000 ohms? 7.35 0.0319 71.5 31.9 D4AE-5.35 71YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms? 36.8 0.273 0.368 2.73 D4AE-5.36 71YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms? 0.221 4.52 0.00452 22.1 A4AE-5.37 71YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000 ohms? 22.1 39 25.6 0.0256 B4AE-5.38 71YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance is 2,200 ohms? 0.031 32.2 31.1 25.6 B4AE-5.39 71YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance is 220 ohms? 23 0.00435 4.35 0.23 D4AE-5.40 72YWhat is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,800 ohms? 1.84 0.543 54.3 23 A4AE-6.1 72YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms? 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current A4AE-6.2 73YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms? 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B4AE-6.3 73YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 ohms? 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C4AE-6.4 73YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms? 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B4AE-6.5 73YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms? 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D4AE-6.6 74YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms? 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B4AE-6.7 75YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms? 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current A4AE-6.8 75YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 ohms? 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current D4AE-6.9 75YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms? 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current D4AE-6.10 75YWhat is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms? 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current C4AE-7.1 75NWhy would the rate at which electrical energy is used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current? Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between the current and voltage Because there are only resistances in the circuit Because there are no reactances in the circuit Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the current and voltage A4AE-7.2 76NIn a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor By dividing the apparent power by the power factor By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current A4AE-7.3 76NWhat does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? 1.414 0.866 0.5 1.73 C4AE-7.4 77NWhat does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? 0.866 1.0 0.5 0.707 D4AE-7.5 77NWhat does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? 1.73 0.5 0.866 0.577 C4AE-7.6 77NHow many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 when the input is 100-Vac and 4-amperes is being drawn? 400 watts 80 watts 2000 watts 50 watts B4AE-7.7 77NHow many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 when the input is 200-Vac and 5-amperes is being drawn? 200 watts 1000 watts 1600 watts 600 watts D4AE-8.1 78NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B4AE-8.2 78NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? 300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C4AE-8.3 78NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D4AE-8.4 79NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole A4AE-8.5 79NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D4AE-8.6 79NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? 800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B4AE-8.7 79NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C4AE-8.8 80NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? 946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D4AE-8.9 80NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? 317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole A4AE-8.10 80NWhat is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? 252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D4AE-9.1 81YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms? R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts B4AE-9.2 82YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms? R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C4AE-9.3 83YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms? R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C4AE-9.4 83YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts D4AE-9.5 83YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts C4AE-9.6 84YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts A4AE-9.7 84YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts B4AE-9.8 84YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B4AE-9.9 84YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C4AE-9.10 85YIn Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts C4AF-1.1 85YWhat is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier? A B C D D4AF-1.2 85NStructurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? Junction and point contact Electrolytic and junction Electrolytic and point contact Vacuum and point contact A4AF-1.3 85YWhat is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode? A B C D D4AF-1.4 86NWhat are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes? Hot carrier and tunnel Varactor and rectifying Voltage regulator and voltage reference Forward and reversed biased C4AF-1.5 86NWhat is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? A constant current under conditions of varying voltage A constant voltage under conditions of varying current A negative resistance region An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage B4AF-1.6 86NWhat is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? 2.4 volts to 200 volts 1.2 volts to 7 volts 3 volts to 2000 volts 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts A4AF-1.7 86YWhat is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode? A B C D C4AF-1.8 87NWhat is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A high forward resistance A very high PIV A negative resistance region A high forward current rating C4AF-1.9 87NWhat special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? Point contact diodes Zener diodes Tunnel diodes Junction diodes C4AF-1.10 87YWhat is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode? A B C D D4AF-1.11 87NWhat type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A varactor diode A tunnel diode A silicon-controlled rectifier A Zener diode A4AF-1.12 87NWhat is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode? It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage It has a negative resistance region It has a very high PIV B4AF-1.13 87NWhat is a common use of a varactor diode? As a constant current source As a constant voltage source As a voltage controlled inductance As a voltage controlled capacitance D4AF-1.14 88NWhat is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? As balanced mixers in SSB generation As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit As a constant voltage reference in a power supply As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors D4AF-1.15 88NWhat limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? The peak inverse voltage The junction temperature The forward voltage The back EMF B4AF-1.16 88NHow are junction diodes rated? Maximum forward current and capacitance Maximum reverse current and PIV Maximum reverse current and capacitance Maximum forward current and PIV D4AF-1.17 88NWhat is a common use for point contact diodes? As a constant current source As a constant voltage source As an RF detector As a high voltage rectifier C4AF-1.18 88NWhat type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small semi-conductor die? Zener diode Varactor diode Junction diode Point contact diode D4AF-1.19 89NWhat is one common use for PIN diodes? As a constant current source As a constant voltage source As an RF switch As a high voltage rectifier C4AF-1.20 89NWhat special type of diode is often used in RF switches, attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices? Tunnel diodes Varactor diodes PIN diodes Junction diodes C4AF-2.1 89YWhat is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? A B C D C4AF-2.2 89YWhat is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor? A B C D B4AF-2.3 89NWhat are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? Cathode, plate and grid Base, collector and emitter Gate, source and sink Input, output and ground B4AF-2.4 90NWhat is the meaning of the term ALPHA with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of collector current with respect to base current The change of base current with respect to collector current The change of collector current with respect to emitter current The change of collector current with respect to gate current C4AF-2.5 90NWhat is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor? Gamma Epsilon Alpha Beta C4AF-2.6 90NWhat is the meaning of the term BETA with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of collector current with respect to base current The change of base current with respect to emitter current The change of collector current with respect to emitter current The change in base current with respect to gate current A4AF-2.7 90NWhat is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor? Alpha Beta Gamma Delta B4AF-2.8 90NWhat is the meaning of the term ALPHA CUTOFF FREQUENCY with regard to bipolar transistors? The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration B4AF-2.9 91NWhat is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor? Corner frequency Alpha cutoff frequency Beta cutoff frequency Alpha rejection frequency B4AF-2.10 91NWhat is the meaning of the term BETA CUTOFF FREQUENCY with regard to a bipolar transistor? That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor B4AF-2.11 91NWhat is the meaning of the term TRANSITION REGION with regard to a transistor? An area of low charge density around the P-N junction The area of maximum P-type charge The area of maximum N-type charge The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type material A4AF-2.12 91NWhat does it mean for a transistor to be FULLY SATURATED? The collector current is at its maximum value The collector current is at its minimum value The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value A4AF-2.13 91NWhat does it mean for a transistor to be CUT OFF? There is no base current The transistor is at its operating point No current flows from emitter to collector Maximum current flows from emitter to collector C4AF-2.14 92YWhat is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor? A B C D C4AF-2.15 92NWhat are the elements of a unijunction transistor? Base 1, base 2 and emitter Gate, cathode and anode Gate, base 1 and base 2 Gate, source and sink A4AF-2.16 92NFor best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated? Just below the saturation point Just above the saturation point At the saturation point At 1.414 times the saturation point A4AF-2.17 92NWhat two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics? Silicon and gold Silicon and germanium Galena and germanium Galena and bismuth B4AF-3.1 92YWhat is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier? A B C D D4AF-3.2 92NWhat are the three terminals of an SCR? Anode, cathode and gate Gate, source and sink Base, collector and emitter Gate, base 1 and base 2 A4AF-3.3 93NWhat are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR? Conducting and nonconducting Oscillating and quiescent Forward conducting and reverse conducting NPN conduction and PNP conduction A4AF-3.4 93NWhen an SCR is in the TRIGGERED or ON condition, its electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode and anode)? The junction diode The tunnel diode The hot-carrier diode The varactor diode A4AF-3.5 93NUnder what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier? During a switching transition When it is used as a detector When it is gated "off" When it is gated "on" D4AF-3.6 93YWhat is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC? A B C D A4AF-3.7 93NWhat is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? TRIAC Bilateral SCR Unijunction transistor Field effect transistor A4AF-3.8 94NWhat are the three terminals of a TRIAC? Emitter, base 1 and base 2 Gate, anode 1 and anode 2 Base, emitter and collector Gate, source and sink B4AF-4.1 94YWhat is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? A B C D B4AF-4.2 94NWhat is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting diode? 60 volts and 20 mA 5 volts and 50 mA 1.7 volts and 20 mA 0.7 volts and 60 mA C4AF-4.3 94NWhat type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? Reverse bias Forward bias Zero bias Inductive bias B4AF-4.4 94NWhat are the advantages of using an LED? Low power consumption and long life High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source A4AF-4.5 95NWhat colors are available in LEDs? Yellow, blue, red and brown Red, violet, yellow and peach Violet, blue, orange and red Red, green, orange and yellow D4AF-4.6 95YWhat is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp? A B C D C4AF-4.7 95NWhat type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio work? NE-1 NE-2 NE-3 NE-4 B4AF-4.8 95NWhat is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? Approximately 67 volts Approximately 5 volts Approximately 5.6 volts Approximately 110 volts A4AF-4.9 95NWhat is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? Approximately 110-V AC RMS Approximately 5-V AC RMS Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS Approximately 48-V AC RMS D4AF-4.10 96NHow can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF? A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency RF A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF D4AF-5.1 96NWhat would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone emission? 6 kHz at -6 dB 2.1 kHz at -6 dB 500 Hz at -6 dB 15 kHz at -6 dB B4AF-5.2 96NWhat would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a double-sideband phone emission? 1 kHz at -6 dB 500 Hz at -6 dB 6 kHz at -6 dB 15 kHz at -6 dB C4AF-5.3 96NWhat is a crystal lattice filter? A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals D4AF-5.4 96NWhat technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance crystal lattice filters? Splitting and tumbling Tumbling and grinding Etching and splitting Etching and grinding D4AF-5.5 97NWhat determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice filter? The relative frequencies of the individual crystals The center frequency chosen for the filter The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter A4AG-1.1 97NWhat is a LINEAR ELECTRONIC VOLTAGE REGULATOR? A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on" state A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current D4AG-1.2 97NWhat is a SWITCHING ELECTRONIC VOLTAGE REGULATOR? A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current A regulator that provides more than one output voltage A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions A regulator that gives a ramp voltage at its output C4AG-1.3 97NWhat device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A Zener diode A tunnel diode An SCR A varactor diode A4AG-1.4 97NWhat type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source? A constant current source A series regulator A shunt regulator A shunt current source B4AG-1.5 98NWhat type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications where the load on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant? A constant current source A series regulator A shunt current source A shunt regulator D4AG-1.6 98NTo obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator? Approximately 2.0 volts Approximately 3.0 volts Approximately 6.0 volts Approximately 10.0 volts C4AG-1.7 98NWhat is the meaning of the term REMOTE SENSING with regard to a linear voltage regulator? The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to the load Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops The load connection is made outside the feedback loop The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage A4AG-1.8 98NWhat is a THREE-TERMINAL REGULATOR? A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element D4AG-1.9 99NWhat are the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator? Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum output voltage Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum output current B4AG-2.1 99NWhat is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle B4AG-2.2 99NWhat class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? Class A Class B Class C Class D A4AG-2.3 100NWhat is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B amplifier? Output for the entire input signal cycle Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle D4AG-2.4 100NWhat class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the output essentially in 180 degree pulses? Class A Class B Class C Class D B4AG-2.5 100NWhat is a CLASS AB AMPLIFIER? Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the signal input cycle Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output is present for the entire input signal cycle Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle A4AG-2.6 101NWhat is the distinguishing feature of a CLASS C AMPLIFIER? Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle Output is present for the entire input signal cycle Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle A4AG-2.7 101NWhat class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? Class A Class B Class C Class AB C4AG-2.8 101NWhich class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? Class A Class B Class C Class AB C4AG-2.9 101NWhich class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? Class A Class B Class C Class AB A4AG-2.10101NWhich class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? Class A Class B Class C Class AB D4AG-3.1 102NWhat is an L-NETWORK? A network consisting entirely of four inductors A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor A network used to generate a leading phase angle A network used to generate a lagging phase angle B4AG-3.2 102NWhat is a PI-NETWORK? A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors A Power Incidence network An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor D4AG-3.3 102NWhat is a PI-L-NETWORK? A Phase Inverter Load network A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors A network with only three discrete parts A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground B4AG-3.4 102NDoes the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest harmonic suppression? L-network Pi-network Inverse L-network Pi-L-network D4AG-3.5 103NWhat are the three most commonly used networks to accomplish a match between an amplifying device and a transmission line? M-network, pi-network and T-network T-network, M-network and Q-network L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network L-network, M-network and C-network C4AG-3.6 103NHow are networks able to transform one impedance to another? Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of an impedance The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an impedance The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance and change the value of the resistive part of an impedance D4AG-3.7 103NWhich type of network offers the greater transformation ratio? L-network Pi-network Constant-K Constant-M B4AG-3.8 103NWhy is the L-network of limited utility in impedance matching? It matches a small impedance range It has limited power handling capabilities It is thermally unstable It is prone to self resonance A4AG-3.9 103NWhat is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna? Greater transformation range Higher efficiency Lower losses Greater harmonic suppression D4AG-3.10104NWhich type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? L-network Pi-network Pi-L-network Inverse-Pi network C4AG-4.1 104NWhat are the three general groupings of filters? High-pass, low-pass and band-pass Inductive, capacitive and resistive Audio, radio and capacitive Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce A4AG-4.2 104NWhat is a CONSTANT-K FILTER? A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of frequencies A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth C4AG-4.3 104NWhat is an advantage of a constant-k filter? It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from the passband It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies It uses elliptic functions The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied A4AG-4.4 105NWhat is an M-DERIVED FILTER? A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M" A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter D4AG-4.5 105NWhat are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies It only requires capacitors It has a maximally flat response over its passband It requires only inductors C4AG-4.6 105NWhat are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? It has a maximally flat response over its passband It allows ripple in the passband It only requires inductors A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies B4AG-4.7 105NWhen would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter When the number of components must be minimized When high power levels must be filtered B4AG-5.1 105NWhat condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must have a gain of less than 1 It must be neutralized It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input C4AG-5.2 106NWhat are three major oscillator circuits often used in amateur radio equipment? Taft, Pierce and negative feedback Colpitts, Hartley and Taft Taft, Hartley and Pierce Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce D4AG-5.3 106NHow is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator? Through a neutralizing capacitor Through a capacitive divider Through link coupling Through a tapped coil D4AG-5.4 106NHow is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator? Through a tapped coil Through link coupling Through a capacitive divider Through a neutralizing capacitor C4AG-5.5 107NHow is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator? Through a tapped coil Through link coupling Through a capacitive divider Through capacitive coupling D4AG-5.6 107NWhich of the three major oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal? Negative feedback Hartley Colpitts Pierce D4AG-5.7 107NWhat is the PIEZOELECTRIC EFFECT? Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field The generation of electrical energy by the application of light Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light A4AG-5.8 107NWhat is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? It is easy to neutralize It doesn't require an LC tank circuit It can be tuned over a wide range It has a high output power B4AG-5.9 107NWhich type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO? Pierce Colpitts Hartley Negative feedback B4AG-5.10108NWhy is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO? The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance It can be used with or without crystal lock-in It is stable It has high output power C4AG-6.1 108NWhat is meant by the term MODULATION? The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached Carrier rejection through phase nulling A linear amplification mode A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier D4AG-6.2 108NHow is an F3E FM-phone emission produced? With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier With a reactance modulator on the oscillator With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier With a balanced modulator on the oscillator B4AG-6.3 108NWhat is a REACTANCE MODULATOR? A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM signals A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM signals A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM signals A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM signals C4AG-6.4 109NWhat is a BALANCED MODULATOR? An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal A modulator that produces a full carrier signal B4AG-6.5 109NHow can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? By driving a product detector with a DSB signal By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter D4AG-6.6 109NHow can a double-sideband phone signal be generated? By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter By detuning a Hartley oscillator By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier D4AG-7.1 109NHow is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined? Efficiency = (RF power out/DC power in) X 100% Efficiency = (RF power in/RF power out) X 100% Efficiency = (RF power in/DC power out) X 100% Efficiency = (DC power in/RF power out) X 100% A4AG-7.2 109NFor reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class C amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500-volts at the plate and 500-milliamperes plate current? 2000 ohms 1500 ohms 4800 ohms 480 ohms B4AG-7.3 110NFor reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class B amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 800-volts at the plate and 75-milliamperes plate current? 679.4 ohms 60 ohms 6794 ohms 10,667 ohms C4AG-7.4 110NFor reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class A amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 250-volts at the plate and 25-milliamperes plate current? 7692 ohms 3250 ohms 325 ohms 769.2 ohms A4AG-7.5 111NFor reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what should the load resistance be with 12-volts at the collector and 5 watts power output? 100.3 ohms 14.4 ohms 10.3 ohms 144 ohms B4AG-7.6 111NWhat is the FLYWHEEL EFFECT? The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter is turned off The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified ac The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops through the ionosphere B4AG-7.7 111NHow can a power amplifier be neutralized? By increasing the grid drive By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the output C4AG-7.8 111NWhat order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level? Approximately 120 Approximately 12 Approximately 1200 Approximately 1.2 B4AG-7.9 112NHow can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier? By tuning for maximum SWR By tuning for maximum power output By neutralization By tuning the output C4AG-7.10112NWhat is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier having an output pi-network? Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the loading capacitor Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor D4AG-8.1 112NWhat is the process of DETECTION? The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal The modulation of a carrier The mixing of noise with the received signal B4AG-8.2 113NWhat is the principle of detection in a diode detector? Rectification and filtering of RF Breakdown of the Zener voltage Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency A4AG-8.3 113NWhat is a PRODUCT DETECTOR? A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier A detector used to detect cross-modulation products C4AG-8.4 113NHow are FM-phone signals detected? By a balanced modulator By a frequency discriminator By a product detector By a phase splitter B4AG-8.5 113NWhat is a FREQUENCY DISCRIMINATOR? A circuit for detecting FM signals A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals An automatic bandswitching circuit An FM generator A4AG-8.6 113NWhat is the MIXING PROCESS? The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation Distortion caused by auroral propagation The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies D4AG-8.7 113NWhat are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer circuit? Two and four times the original frequency The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency C4AG-8.8 114NWhat are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process? Automatic squelching and increased selectivity Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity B4AG-8.9 114NWhat occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit? Spurious mixer products are generated Mixer blanking occurs Automatic limiting occurs A beat frequency is generated A4AG-9.1 114NHow much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? As much gain as possible short of self oscillation Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage B4AG-9.2 115NWhy should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage? To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator C4AG-9.3 115NWhat is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? To provide most of the receiver gain To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC To improve the receiver's noise figure To develop the AGC voltage C4AG-9.4 115NWhat is an I-F AMPLIFIER STAGE? A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier A receiver demodulator A receiver filter A buffer oscillator A4AG-9.5 115NWhat factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? Cross-modulation distortion and interference Interference to other services Image rejection and selectivity Noise figure and distortion C4AG-9.6 115NWhat is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? Noise figure performance Tune out cross-modulation distortion Dynamic response Selectivity D4AG-9.7 116NWhat is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? Dynamic response Gain Noise figure performance Bypass undesired signals B4AG-10.1116YWhat type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10? Switching voltage regulator Linear voltage regulator Common emitter amplifier Emitter follower amplifier C4AG-10.2116YIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? Load resistors Fixed bias Self bias Feedback B4AG-10.3116YIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1? Decoupling Output coupling Self bias Input coupling D4AG-10.4117YIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3? AC feedback Input coupling Power supply decoupling Emitter bypass D4AG-10.5117YIn Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3? Fixed bias Emitter bypass Output load resistor Self bias D4AG-11.1117YWhat type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11? High-gain amplifier Common-collector amplifier Linear voltage regulator Grounded-emitter amplifier B4AG-11.2117YIn Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R? Emitter load Fixed bias Collector load Voltage regulation A4AG-11.3118YIn Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1? Input coupling Output coupling Emitter bypass Collector bypass D4AG-11.4118YIn Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2? Output coupling Emitter bypass Input coupling Hum filtering A4AG-12.1118YWhat type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12? Switching voltage regulator Grounded emitter amplifier Linear voltage regulator Emitter follower C4AG-12.2118YWhat is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? Line voltage stabilization Voltage reference Peak clipping Hum filtering B4AG-12.3119YWhat is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? It increases the output ripple It provides a constant load for the voltage source It increases the current handling capability It provides D1 with current C4AG-12.4119YWhat is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? It resonates at the ripple frequency It provides fixed bias for Q1 It decouples the output It filters the supply voltage D4AG-12.5119YWhat is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? It bypasses hum around D1 It is a brute force filter for the output To self resonate at the hum frequency To provide fixed DC bias for Q1 A4AG-12.6119YWhat is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? It prevents self-oscillation It provides brute force filtering of the output It provides fixed bias for Q1 It clips the peaks of the ripple A4AG-12.7119YWhat is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? It provides a constant load to the voltage source It couples hum to D1 It supplies current to D1 It bypasses hum around D1 C4AG-12.8119YWhat is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? It provides fixed bias for Q1 It provides fixed bias for D1 It decouples hum from D1 It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 D4AG-13.1120NWhat value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 80-meter wavelength band? 150 picofarads 200 picofarads 100 picofarads 100 microfarads C4AG-13.2121NWhat value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40-meter wavelength band? 200 microhenrys 150 microhenrys 5 millihenrys 5 microhenrys D4AG-13.3121NWhat value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 20-meter wavelength band? 64 picofarads 6 picofarads 12 picofarads 88 microfarads A4AG-13.4122NWhat value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15-meter wavelength band? 2 microhenrys 30 microhenrys 4 microhenrys 15 microhenrys C4AG-13.5122NWhat value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 160-meter wavelength band? 78 picofarads 25 picofarads 405 picofarads 40.5 microfarads A4AH-1.1 122NWhat is emission A3C? Facsimile RTTY ATV Slow Scan TV A4AH-1.2 123NWhat type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A3F A3C F3F F3C B4AH-1.3 123NWhat is FACSIMILE? The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means C4AH-1.4 123NWhat is emission F3C? Voice transmission Slow Scan TV RTTY Facsimile D4AH-1.5 123NWhat type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? F3C A3C F3F A3F A4AH-1.6 123NWhat is emission A3F? RTTY Television SSB Modulated CW B4AH-1.7 123NWhat type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? F3F A3F A3C F3C B4AH-1.8 124NWhat is emission F3F? Modulated CW Facsimile RTTY Television D4AH-1.9 124NWhat type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? A3F A3C F3F F3C C4AH-1.10124NWhat type of emission results when a single sideband transmitter is used for slow-scan television? J3A F3F A3F J3F D4AH-2.1 124NHow can an FM-phone signal be produced? By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator C4AH-2.2 124NHow can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier D4AH-2.3 124NHow can a single-sideband phone signal be produced? By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization A4AH-3.1 125NWhat is meant by the term DEVIATION RATIO? The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency B4AH-3.2 125NIn an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? Deviation index Modulation index Deviation ratio Modulation ratio C4AH-3.3 125NWhat is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? 60 0.16 0.6 1.66 D4AH-3.4 126NWhat is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? 2.14 0.214 0.47 47 A4AH-4.1 126NWhat is meant by the term MODULATION INDEX? The processor index The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency The FM signal-to-noise ratio The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency B4AH-4.2 126NIn an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of the frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency? FM compressibility Quieting index Percentage of modulation Modulation index D4AH-4.3 126NHow does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with the modulated frequency? The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) D4AH-4.4 126NIn an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? 3 0.3 3000 1000 A4AH-4.5 127NWhat is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6-kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? 6000 3 2000 1/3 B4AH-5.1 127NWhat are ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES? Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other C4AH-5.2 127NWhat is a WAVE FRONT? A voltage pulse in a conductor A current pulse in a conductor A voltage pulse across a resistor A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave D4AH-5.3 127NAt what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? Approximately 300 million meters per second Approximately 468 million meters per second Approximately 186,300 feet per second Approximately 300 million miles per second A4AH-5.4 127NWhat are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave? An electric field and a current field An electric field and a magnetic field An electric field and a voltage field A voltage field and a current field B4AH-5.5 128NWhy do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great extent? The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield Because of Eddy currents The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field C4AH-6.1 128NWhat is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves traveling in free space? The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to its source Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and magnetic fields D4AH-6.2 128NWhat is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as HORIZONTALLY POLARIZED? The electric field is parallel to the earth The magnetic field is parallel to the earth Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical A4AH-6.3 129NWhat is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having CIRCULAR POLARIZATION? The electric field is bent into a circular shape The electric field rotates The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna B4AH-6.4 129NWhen the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Circular Horizontal Vertical Elliptical C4AH-6.5 129NWhen the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Circular Horizontal Elliptical Vertical D4AH-6.6 129NWhen the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic field? Horizontal Circular Elliptical Vertical A4AH-6.7 129NWhen the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? Vertical Horizontal Circular Elliptical B4AH-7.1 130NWhat is a SINE WAVE? A constant-voltage, varying-current wave A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner B4AH-7.2 130NHow many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle? 180 times 4 times 2 times 360 times C4AH-7.3 130NHow many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? 90 degrees 270 degrees 180 degrees 360 degrees D4AH-7.4 131NWhat is the PERIOD of a wave? The time required to complete one cycle The number of degrees in one cycle The number of zero crossings in one cycle The amplitude of the wave A4AH-7.5 131NWhat is a SQUARE wave? A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal portions of the cycle time B4AH-7.6 131NWhat is a wave called which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level? A sine wave A cosine wave A square wave A rectangular wave C4AH-7.7 131NWhich sine waves make up a square wave? 0.707 times the fundamental frequency The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics D4AH-7.8 131NWhat type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? Square wave Sine wave Cosine wave Tangent wave A4AH-7.9 132NWhat is a SAWTOOTH wave? A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time at each level A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or vice versa) A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed B4AH-7.10132NWhat type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A cosine wave A square wave A sawtooth wave A sine wave C4AH-7.11132NWhich sine waves make up a sawtooth wave? The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics The fundamental frequency and all harmonics D4AH-7.12132NWhat type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A sawtooth wave A square wave A sine wave A cosine wave A4AH-8.1 132NWhat is the meaning of the term ROOT MEAN SQUARE value of an AC voltage? The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of the peak AC voltage The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a peak AC voltage The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value C4AH-8.2 133NWhat is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a certain value of AC voltage? Cosine voltage Power factor Root mean square Average voltage C4AH-8.3 133NWhat would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of a complex waveform? By using a grid dip meter By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter By using an absorption wavemeter By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor D4AH-8.4 133NWhat is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? 117-V AC 331-V AC 82.7-V AC 165.5-V AC A4AH-8.5 133NWhat is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? 234 volts 165.5 volts 117 volts 331 volts B4AH-8.6 134NWhat is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? 234 volts 117 volts 331 volts 165.5 volts C4AH-8.7 134NWhat is the RMS voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine wave? 233-V AC 330-V AC 58.3-V AC 117-V AC D4AH-8.8 134NWhat is the RMS value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? 117-V AC 165-V AC 234-V AC 300-V AC A4AH-9.1 134NFor many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? Approximately 1.0 to 1 Approximately 25 to 1 Approximately 2.5 to 1 Approximately 100 to 1 C4AH-9.2 134NIn a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? The frequency of the modulating signal The degree of carrier suppression The speech characteristics The amplifier power C4AH-9.3 135NWhat is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts? Approximately 900 watts Approximately 1765 watts Approximately 2500 watts Approximately 3000 watts C4AH-9.4 135NWhat is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in a RTTY transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts? Approximately 850 watts Approximately 1250 watts Approximately 1667 watts Approximately 2000 watts B4AH-9.5 135NWhat is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? Approximately 250 watts Approximately 600 watts Approximately 800 watts Approximately 1000 watts D4AH-10.1136NWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 160-meter wavelength band receiver? In the detector Man-made noise In the receiver front end In the atmosphere D4AH-10.2136NWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 2-meter wavelength band receiver? In the receiver front end Man-made noise In the atmosphere In the ionosphere A4AH-10.3136NWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25-meter wavelength band receiver? In the audio amplifier In the receiver front end In the ionosphere Man-made noise B4AH-10.4136NWhere is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70-meter wavelength band receiver? In the atmosphere In the ionosphere In the receiver front end Man-made noise C4AI-1.1 136NWhat is meant by the term ANTENNA GAIN? The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power of the transmitter The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing lines present) A4AI-1.2 137NWhat is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna? Effective radiated power Antenna gain Conversion gain Peak effective power B4AI-1.3 137NWhat is meant by the term ANTENNA BANDWIDTH? Antenna length divided by the number of elements The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well The angle between the half-power radiation points The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements B4AI-1.4 137NHow can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be determined? Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular differenceMeasure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna A4AI-2.1 138NWhat is a TRAP ANTENNA? An antenna for rejecting interfering signals A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of the presence of parallel LC networks An antenna with a large capture area C4AI-2.2 138NWhat is an advantage of using a trap antenna? It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands It has high gain It minimizes harmonic radiation It may be used for multiband operation D4AI-2.3 138NWhat is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna? It will radiate harmonics It can only be used for single band operation It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies It must be neutralized A4AI-2.4 138NWhat is the principle of a trap antenna? Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around the antenna "sees" a high impedance The traps increase the antenna gain B4AI-3.1 139NWhat is a parasitic element of an antenna? An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element An element dependent on the antenna structure for support An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than from a transmission line A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy C4AI-3.2 139NHow does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field? By the RF current received from a connected transmission line By interacting with the earth's magnetic field By altering the phase of the current on the driven element By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric field D4AI-3.3 139NHow does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? It is about 5% longer It is about 5% shorter It is twice as long It is one-half as long A4AI-3.4 139NHow does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? It is about 5% longer It is about 5% shorter It is one-half as long It is twice as long B4AI-4.1 140NWhat is meant by the term RADIATION RESISTANCE for an antenna? Losses in the antenna elements and feed line The specific impedance of the antenna An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna The resistance in the trap coils to received signals C4AI-4.2 140NWhat is the term used for an equivalent resistance which would dissipate the same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna? Space resistance Loss resistance Transmission line loss Radiation resistance D4AI-4.3 140NWhy is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna A4AI-4.4 140NWhat are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna? Transmission line length and height of antenna The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the length/diameter ratio of the conductors It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant Sunspot activity and the time of day B4AI-5.1 140NWhat is a DRIVEN ELEMENT of an antenna? Always the rearmost element Always the forwardmost element The element fed by the transmission line The element connected to the rotator C4AI-5.2 141NWhat is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam antenna? 1/4 wavelength 1/2 wavelength 3/4 wavelength 1 wavelength B4AI-5.3 141NWhat is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a transmitter through a transmission line? Driven element Director element Reflector element Parasitic element A4AI-6.1 141NWhat is meant by the term ANTENNA EFFICIENCY? Efficiency = (radiation resistance/transmission resistance) X 100% Efficiency = (radiation resistance/total resistance) X 100% Efficiency = (total resistance/radiation resistance) X 100% Efficiency = (effective radiated power/transmitter output) X 100% B4AI-6.2 141NWhat is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? Effective radiated power Radiation conversion loss Antenna efficiency Beamwidth C4AI-6.3 141NWhat is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? Radiation resistance plus space impedance Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance D4AI-6.4 142NHow can the antenna efficiency of a HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna? By installing a good ground radial system By isolating the coax shield from ground By shortening the vertical By lengthening the vertical A4AI-6.5 142NWhy does a halfwave antenna operate at very high efficiency? Because it is non-resonant Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation resistance Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types of antennas B4AI-7.1 142NWhat is a FOLDED DIPOLE antenna? A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long A ground plane antenna A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength piece of wire A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance C4AI-7.2 143NHow does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna? It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth It is essentially the same It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole It is greater D4AI-7.3 143NWhat is the input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna? 300 ohms 72 ohms 50 ohms 450 ohms A4AI-8.1 143NWhat is the meaning of the term VELOCITY FACTOR of a transmission line? The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance The index of shielding for coaxial cable The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum D4AI-8.2 143NWhat is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum? Velocity factor Characteristic impedance Surge impedance Standing wave ratio A4AI-8.3 143NWhat is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable? 2.70 0.66 0.30 0.10 B4AI-8.4 144NWhat determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? The termination impedance The line length Dielectrics in the line The center conductor resistivity C4AI-8.5 144NWhy is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line B4AI-9.1 144NWhat would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? 20 meters 3.51 meters 2.33 meters 0.25 meters B4AI-9.2 145NWhat would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? 10.5 meters 6.88 meters 24 meters 50 meters B4AI-9.3 145NWhat is the physical length of a parallel antenna feedline which is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.82.) 15 meters 24.3 meters 8.7 meters 70.8 meters C4AI-9.4 145NWhat is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feedline at 3.65 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.) Electrical length times 0.8 Electrical length divided by 0.8 80 meters 160 meters A4AI-10.1145NIn a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes? At the ends At the center Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end A4AI-10.2145NIn a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes? At the ends At the feed point Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end B4AI-10.3146NAt the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? Equal voltage and current Minimum voltage and maximum current Maximum voltage and minimum current Minimum voltage and minimum current C4AI-10.4146NAt the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of voltage and current exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? Equal voltage and current Maximum voltage and minimum current Minimum voltage and minimum current Minimum voltage and maximum current D4AI-11.1146NWhy is the inductance required for a base loaded HF mobile antenna less than that for an inductance placed further up the whip? The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base The current is greater at the top The voltage is less at the top A4AI-11.2147NWhat happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases B4AI-11.3147NWhy should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? To swamp out harmonics To maximize losses To minimize losses To minimize the Q C4AI-11.4148NWhy is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna? To improve reception To lower the losses To lower the Q To tune out the capacitive reactance D4AI-12.1148NFor a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? Near the center of the vertical radiator As low as possible on the vertical radiator As close to the transmitter as possible At a voltage node A4AI-12.2148NWhat happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? It is increased It is decreased No change occurs It becomes flat B4AI-12.3148NWhy are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur stations? They are very broad banded They have high gain in all azimuthal directions They are the most efficient radiators They require no calculations C4AI-12.4148NWhat is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? Lower Q Greater structural strength Higher losses Improved radiation efficiency D They have high gain in all azimuthal directions They are the most efficient radiators They require no calculations C4AI-12.4 148NWhat is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? Lower Q Greater structural strength Higher losses Improved radiation efficiency D
