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1989-08-02
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BIBLICAL ERRANCY Subscriptions:
Dennis Mckinsey Editor (12 issues per year)
3158 Sherwood Park Drive $9 for one year
Springfield, Ohio 45505 $17 for two years
Payable to:
Dennis Mckinsey
=====================================================================
(After having discussed the Bible's postion on homosexuality, Dennis
moved on to a discussion of abortion)
.
ABORTION--Abortion, on the other hand, fares quite differently. Unlike
homosexuality, it is not prohibited by any biblical verse or any series
of connected verses. The only text that is repeatedly cited in this
regard is EX. 21:22-23 ("If men strive and hurt a woman with child, so
that her fruit depart from her, and yet no mischief follow: he shall be
surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and
he shall pay as the judges determine. And if any mischief follow, then
thou shalt give life for life"). Even fundamentalist, John R. Rice,
whom Jerry Falwell described as his mentor, admitted that "only in the
case of EX. 21:22-25 does the Bible specifically mention retaliation for
the death or injury of an unborn child" (`Abortion' by John R. Rice, p.
8). Unfortunately for apologists their favorite quotation is inadequate
in several respects. First, we are no longer under the Old Law
according to biblicists and EX. 21 is a good example of same. Second,
and even more important, careful reading of the words will show that
they do not prohibit abortion. In fact, they aren't even discussing
abortion. Notice what is said! If two men are fighting and hurt a
pregnant woman such that a miscarriage occurs, "yet no mischief follows:
he shall surely be punished." The man who caused the miscarriage will
be punished and forced to pay by the woman's husband and a judge for
what he did to the woman, not for what he did to the fetus. Third, the
last line says, "If any mischief follow, then thou shalt give life for
life." If any mischief TO THE WOMAN, NO THE FETUS, follows, then the
offender will be killed. The key word is "if." "If" any mischief
follows. The mischief has already occurred if the miscarriage was the
main concern. Obviously, mischief to the woman is the only concern
since the fetus is gone. In truth, EX. 21:22-25 has nothing to do with
abortion. It's actually saying that if two men are fighting and a
pregnant woman is injured in the process and has a miscarriage but
suffers no other injury, the offender should be punished by the woman's
husband. On the other hand, if the woman incurred "mischief," which
appears to be death, then the injuring party must die.
Although there are no verses in the Bible clearly in opposition to
abortion, is there any strategy by which biblicists can use the Bible to
oppose abortion. Yes, there is, but two hurdles must be surmounted.
They must not only find verses in opposition to the killing of human
beings in general but also find verses saying the fetus is a human being
THROUGHOUT THE ENTIRE 9-MONTH GESTATION PERIOD. If the fetus is a human
being for the entire 9 months and the killing of humans is wrong, then
biblical opposition to abortion is demonstrated. If we assume the 6th
Commandment (EX. 20:13), REV. 21:8 ("...murderers...shall have their
part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone...."), 1 John
3:15 ("...and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in
him"), GEN. 9:6 ("Whoso sheddeth man's blood by man shall his blood be
shed: for in the image of God made he man"), and EX. 21:12 ("He that
smitheth a man so that he die, shall be surely put to death") are still
operative and refer to the killing of human beings, one can reasonably
conclude the first hurdle has been scaled.
The second obstacle, however, is considerably more formidable.
Apologists must not only employ verses showing that which lives in the
womb is a human being, but that it is a human being THROUGHOUT THE
ENTIRE 9-MONTH PERIOD. Having laid down the requirements we can now
analyze the most commonly used anti-abortion texts. EX. 23:7 ("Keep
thee far from a false matter, and the innocent and righteous slay thou
not...."), DEUT. 27:25 ("Cursed be he that taketh reward to slay an
innocent person"), and 2 KINGS 24:4 ("And also for the innocent blood
that he shed; for he filled Jerusalem with innocent blood which the Lord
would not pardon") are inapplicable because they assume the very point
in dispute, i.e., that the fetus is a human being. He would have to be
a human being in order to be innocent. Everyone would agree that the
slaying of innocent people is wrong, but apologists are obligated to
prove the fetus is "people" according to the Bible before claiming the
Bible prohibits abortion. Humanity precedes innocence.
Moreover, PSALM 58:3 ("The wicked are estranged from the womb: they
go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies"), JOB 14:4 ("Who can
bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one"), and JOB 15:14 ("What
is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that
he should be righteous?") not only show that NEWBORNS are not innocent
but deal a fatal blow to the whole "age of accountability" idea. In
fact, one could argue that PSALM 51:5 ("Behold, I was shapen in
iniquity: and in sin did my mother conceive me") shows that the fetus,
itself, is not innocent if one believes it's a human being. It's hard
to conceive of one being shapen in sin and iniquity while remaining
pure.
RUTH 4:13 ("So Boaz took Ruth, and she was his wife: and when he went
in unto her, the Lord gave her conception, and she bare a son"), Gen.
29:32 ("And Leah conceived, and bare a son...."), and Gen. 30:22-23
("...and God hearkened to her, and opened her womb and she conceived,
and bare a son....") are used by abortion opponents ina feeble attempt
to ignore the nine month gestation period by equating conception with
baring a son. All three verses say a son emerged at birth, but none
says he was a son at conception or during the nine months of gestation.
The point at which a human being comes onto the scene is the key
question not only with the biblical but the scientific and legal
community as well. Is it at conception, at birth, or at some point
during the nine intervening months? ISA. 49:5 ("And now, saith the Lord
that formed me from the womb to be his servant...."), ISA. 49:1 ("...The
Lord hath called me from the womb; from the bowels of my mother hath he
made mention of my name"), and Eccle. 11:5 are used by anti-abortionists
but only to prove fetuses become human beings at some point during the
gestation period, not a conception. Whether formed "from" the womb
(i.e., after leaving) or "in" the womb, the fact remains that these
verses are not saying he was formed at conception.
Biblicists also rely upon PSALM 139:13-16 RSV ("For thou didst form
my inward parts, thou didst knit me together in my mother's womb...my
frame was not hidden from thee, when I was being made in secret,....Thy
eyes beheld my unformed substance....") to prove the fetus is a human
being but fail to realize these verses could only be used to prove the
fetus formed at conception becomes a human being at some point during
the nine months. How could one be a human being at conception, if one
is knit together, formed, and made in secret during the pregnancy?
MATT. 1:18 ("When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before
they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost") and
GEN. 25:21-24 ("...and REbekah, the wife of Isaac, conceived, and the
children struggled together within her.... And the Lord said unto her,
Two nations are in thy womb, and two manner of people shall be separated
from thy bowels, and the one people shall be stronger than the other
people....and when her days to be delivered were fulfilled, behold there
were twins in her womb") are stronger than any anti-abortion verses that
have been discussed so far because they clearly show the fetus is a
child at some point during the gestation period according to the Bible.
They are strongly supported by LUKE 1:41 ("And it came to passs that,
when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her
[Elisabeth's--Ed.] womb....") and LUKE 1:44 ("For lo, as soon as the
voice of thy salutation sounded in mine ears, the babe leaped in my womb
for joy") which, when used in conjunction with LUKE 1:36 ("And, behold,
thy cousin Elizabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and
this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren"), prove the
Bible teaches the fetus is a human being by the 6th month of the
pregnancy.
What, then, can we conclude from all of the verses discussed so far.
In essence, biblicists can use the Bible to prove the fetus is a human
being not only at birth but by the 6th month of gestation. However,
they can't use the Bible to clearly prove the fetus is a human being at
conception or during the 1st and 2nd trimesters and that's when nearly
all abortions occur.
They do have one final verse that could be interpreted as their
strongest suit, however. JER. 1:4-5 ("Then the word of the Lord came
unto me saying, Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and
before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I
ordained thee a prophet unto the nations") appears to be the only verse
in the entire Bible alleging someone is not only a human being at
conception but prior to same. Unfortunately for the anti-abortionists
the key phrase ("Before I formed thee in the belly, I knew thee") is
ambiguous. Does it mean the speaker did not yet exist but God had
already planned what he would be prior to conception or he already
existed and God knew what he was? Obviously, anti-abortionists will
favor the latter. Second, God is speaking to Jeremiah alone. Upon what
basis do they assume this applies to all of humanity. And finally,
retreat to a verse of this nature means that apologists have abandoned
any attempt to prove from the Bible that the fetus is a human being
physically during the first 6 months of gestation. Instead, they are
saying the fetus is a human being before conception, spiritually
speaking, which is much less demonstrable and harder to prove.