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Text File | 1990-11-04 | 143KB | 3,193 lines

1. What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 75 meter band? A. 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz B. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz C. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz D. 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz 2. What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 40 meter band? A. 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz B. 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz C. 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz D. 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz 3. What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 20 meter band? A. 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz B. 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz C. 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz D. 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz 4. What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator in the 15 meter band? A. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz B. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz C. 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz D. 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz 5. What is meant by automatic retransmission? A. The retransmitting station is actuated by a received electrical signal B. The retransmitting station is actuated by a telephone control link C. The retransmitting station is actuated by a control operator D. The retransmitting station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse code 6. What is the term for the retransmission of signals by an amateur radio station whereby the retransmitting station is actuated solely by the presence of a received signal through electrical or electromechanical means, i.e., without any direct, positive action by the control operator? A. Simplex retransmission B. Manual retransmission C. Linear retransmission D. Automatic retransmission 7. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station automatically retransmit programs or the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Only when the station licensee is present B. Only when in repeater operation C. Only when the control operator is present D. Only during portable operation 8. What is meant by manual retransmission? A. A retransmitted signal that is not automatically controlled B. A retransmitted signal that is automatically controlled C. An OSCAR satellite transponder D. The theory behind operational repeaters 9. What is meant by repeater operation? A. An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third party traffic B. An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point and a remotely controlled station C. Manual or simplex operation D. Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are automatically retransmitted 10. What is a closed repeater? A. A repeater containing control circuitry that limits access to the repeater to members of a certain group B. A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access to any licensed amateur C. A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same frequency, a closed pair D. A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-in-Charge 11. What frequencies in the 10 meter band are available for repeater operation? A. 28.0-28.7 MHz B. 29.0-29.7 MHz C. 29.5-29.7 MHz D. 28.5-29.7 MHz 12. What determines the maximum effective radiated power a station in repeater operation may use? A. Repeaters are authorized 1500 watts power output at all times B. The percent modulation and emission type used C. Polarization and direction of major lobes D. Frequency and antenna height above average terrain 13. How is effective radiated power determined? A. By measuring the output power of the final amplifier B. By dividing the final amplifier power by the feed-line losses C. By calculating the product of the transmitter power to the antenna and the antenna gain D. By measuring the power delivered to the antenna 14. What is an open repeater? A. A repeater that contains no special control circuitry to limit access to any licensed amateur B. A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater group C. A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that it is available for use D. A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated 15. What frequencies in the 6 meter band are available for repeater operation? A. 51.00-52.00 MHz B. 50.25-52.00 MHz C. 52.00-53.00 MHz D. 52.00-54.00 MHz 16. What frequencies in the 2 meter band are available for repeater operation? A. 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz B. 144.50-148.00 MHz C. 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz D. 146.00-148.00 MHz 17. What frequencies in the 1.25 meter band are available for repeater operation? A. 220.25-225.00 MHz B. 220.50-225.00 MHz C. 221.00-225.00 MHz D. 223.00-225.00 MHz 18. What frequencies in the 0.70 meter band are available for repeater operation? A. 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz B. 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz C. 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz D. 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz 19. What is meant by auxiliary operation? A. Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that indicated on the station license for a period of more than three months B. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 50.1 MHz C. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above 29.5 MHz D. Radio communications for remotely controlling other amateur radio stations, for automatically relaying the signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations or for intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of stations 20. What are three uses for stations in auxiliary operation? A. Remote control of other amateur stations, automatically relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations B. Remote control of model craft and vehicles, automatically relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of stations C. Remote control of other amateur stations and of model craft and vehicles, manually relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations D. Operation for more than three months at a location more than 50 miles from the location listed on the station license, automatically relaying signals from other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations 21. A station in auxiliary operation may only communicate with which stations? A. Stations in the public safety service B. Other amateur stations in the system of amateur stations shown on the system network diagram C. Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation D. Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control 22. What frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary operation? A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz 23. What is meant by remote control of an amateur radio station? A. Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical location other than that shown on the station license B. Automatic operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere than at the station transmitter C. An amateur radio station operating under automatic control D. Manual operation of a station from a control point located elsewhere than at the station transmitter 24. How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under remote control differ from one under local control? A. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3 minutes if the control link malfunctions B. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4 minutes if the control link malfunctions C. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5 minutes if the control link malfunctions D. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10 minutes if the control link malfunctions 25. If the control link for a station under remote control malfunctions, how long may the station continue to transmit? A. 5 seconds B. 10 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 5 minutes 26. What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of an amateur radio station? A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz 27. What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of a station in repeater operation? A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 436-438 MHz B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-437 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and 434-437 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 435-438 MHz 28. What is meant by automatic control of an amateur radio station? A. Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times B. Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is radio communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station C. Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times D. Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of a control link between a control point and a remotely controlled station 29. How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control, there is no control operator B. Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be present at the control point at all times C. Under automatic control, there is no control operator D. Under local control, a control operator is not required to be present at the control point at all times 30. Which amateur stations may be operated by automatic control? A. Stations without a control operator B. Stations in repeater operation C. Stations that do not have transmission-limiting timing devices D. Stations that transmit codes and cipher groups, as defined in FCC Part 97.117 31. What is a control link? A. The automatic control devices of an unattended station B. An automatically operated link C. The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely controlled station D. A transmission-limiting timing device 32. What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control point and a remotely controlled station? A. Tone link B. Wire control C. Remote control D. Control link 33. What is a system network diagram? A. As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing each station in a system of stations, and its relationship to other stations and to the control point B. As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram describing a computer interface to an amateur radio station C. As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram demonstrating how a mobile amateur radio station used on board a ship or aircraft is electrically separate from and independent of all other radio equipment on board D. As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing the stages of an amateur transmitter or external radio frequency power amplifier 34. What type of diagram shows each station and its relationship to other stations in a network of amateur stations, and to the control point(s)? A. A control link diagram B. A system network diagram C. A radio network diagram D. A control point diagram 35. At what level of modulation must an amateur station in repeater operation transmit its identification? A. At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission B. At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the repeater C. At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated transmission D. At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84 36. At what level of modulation must an amateur station in auxiliary operation transmit its identification? A. At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission B. At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the repeater C. At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated transmission D. At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84 37. What additional station identification requirements apply to amateur stations in repeater operation? A. The letters "AUX" must follow the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy B. The letters "RPTR" must follow the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy C. The word "auxiliary" must be added after the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony D. The word "repeater" must be added after the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony 38. What additional station identification requirements apply to amateur stations in auxiliary operation? A. The word "auxiliary" must be transmitted at the end of the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony B. The letters "RPTR" must precede the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy C. The letters "AUX" must precede the station call sign when identifying by radiotelegraphy D. The words "remote control" must be added after the call sign when identifying by radiotelephony 39. When is prior FCC approval required before constructing or altering an amateur station antenna structure? A. When the antenna structure violates local building codes B. When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet C. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 150 feet high D. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be 100 feet high 40. What must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC before constructing or altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high? A. An Environmental Impact Statement B. A Special Temporary Authorization C. Prior approval D. An effective radiated power statement 41. How is antenna height above average terrain determined? A. By an aerial survey B. The height of the center of radiation of the antenna above an averaged value of the elevation above sea level for surrounding terrain C. The height of the antenna above the highest value of the elevation above sea level for surrounding terrain D. By measuring the highest point of the antenna above the lowest value of surrounding terrain 42. For a station in repeater operation transmitting on 146.94 MHz, what is the maximum ERP permitted for an antenna height above average terrain of more than 1050 feet? A. 100 watts B. 200 watts C. 400 watts D. 800 watts 43. What are business communications? A. Third party traffic that involves material compensation B. Any transmission that facilitates the regular business or commercial affairs of any party C. Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a commercial tow truck service D. An autopatch using a commercial telephone system 44. What is the term for a transmission or communication the purpose of which is to facilitate the regular business or commercial affairs of any party? A. Duplex autopatch B. Third party traffic that involves compensation C. Business communications D. Simplex autopatch 45. Under what conditions, if any, may business communications be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When the total remuneration does not exceed $25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC C. When transmitting international third party traffic D. During an emergency 46. What are the only types of messages that may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country? A. Call sign and signal reports B. Emergency messages C. Business messages D. Personal remarks 47. What are the limitations on international amateur radiocommunications regarding the types of messages transmitted? A. Emergency communications only B. Technical or personal messages only C. Business communications only D. Call sign and signal reports only 48. Under what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators accept payment for using their stations to send messages? A. When employed by the FCC B. When passing emergency traffic C. Under no circumstances D. When passing international third party traffic 49. Under what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an amateur station in repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication services to another party? A. When the repeater is operating under portable power B. When the repeater is under local control C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills D. Under no circumstances 50. Who is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? A. The examiner B. The FCC C. The VEC D. Any Novice licensee 51. What must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove? A. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute B. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute C. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute D. The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute 52. Which telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination? A. The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN B. The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN C. The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN D. A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, and the question mark 53. Who is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written examination? A. The FCC B. Any Novice licensee C. The test examiner D. The VEC 54. Where do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for preparing an Element 2 written examination? A. From FCC PR Bulletin 1035C B. From FCC PR Bulletin 1035B C. From FCC PR Bulletin 1035D D. From FCC PR Bulletin 1035A 55. Who is eligible for administering an examination for the Novice operator license? A. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old B. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old C. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old D. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old 56. For how long must the volunteer examiner for a Novice operator examination retain the test papers? A. Ten years from the date of the examination B. One year from the date of the examination C. Twelve years from the date of the examination D. Until the license is issued 57. Where must the volunteer examiner for a Novice operator examination retain the test papers? A. With the examinee's station records B. With the VEC that issued the papers C. With the volunteer examiner's station records D. With the Volunteer Examiner Team Chief's station records 58. What is the minimum passing score on a written examination element for the Novice operator license? A. 84 percent, minimum B. 74 percent, minimum C. 70 percent, minimum D. 80 percent, minimum 59. For a 20 question Element 2 written examination, how many correct answers constitute a passing score? A. 10 or more B. 12 or more C. 14 or more D. 15 or more 60. In a telegraphy examination, how many characters are counted as one word? A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 61. What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? A. 16 years old B. 21 years old C. 18 years old D. 13 years old 62. Under what circumstances, if any, may volunteer examiners be compensated for their services? A. Under no circumstances B. When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25 C. The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25 miles to the test site D. Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the examination session 63. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person whose amateur station license or amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a volunteer examiner? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension C. Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation of suspension D. Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC 64. Under what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a company which is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur radio transmissions be a volunteer examiner? A. If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the company B. If the employee does not normally communicate with the manufacturing or distribution part of the company C. If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her customers D. If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and policies part of the company 65. What are the penalties for fraudulently administering examinations? A. The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months B. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed C. Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license D. The examiner may be restricted to giving only Novice class exams 66. What are the penalties for administering examinations for money or other considerations? A. The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not to exceed 3 months B. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was committed C. The examiner may be restricted to administering only Novice class license exams D. Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license 67. What is facsimile? A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television C. The transmission of video by amateur television D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper 68. What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? A. The modern standard is 240 lines per minute B. The modern standard is 50 lines per minute C. The modern standard is 150 lines per second D. The modern standard is 60 lines per second 69. What is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? A. Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm B. Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm C. Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm D. 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm 70. What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio? A. Television B. Facsimile C. Xerography D. ACSSB 71. In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted into voltage variations? A. With an LED B. With a Hall-effect transistor C. With a photodetector D. With an optoisolator 72. What is slow-scan television? A. The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio B. The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper C. The transmission of moving pictures by radio D. The transmission of still pictures by radio 73. What is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan television? A. 20 lines per minute B. 15 lines per second C. 4 lines per minute D. 240 lines per minute 74. How many lines are there in each frame of an amateur slow-scan television picture? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180 75. What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television picture? A. 2300 Hz B. 2000 Hz C. 1500 Hz D. 120 Hz 76. What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television picture? A. 120 Hz B. 1500 Hz C. 2000 Hz D. 2300 Hz 77. What is a sporadic-E condition? A. Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations B. A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-layer height C. Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height D. Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height 78. What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively dense ionization develops seasonally at E layer heights? A. Auroral propagation B. Ducting C. Scatter D. Sporadic-E 79. In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent? A. The equatorial regions B. The arctic regions C. The northern hemisphere D. The polar regions 80. On which amateur frequency band is extended distant propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed? A. 2 meters B. 6 meters C. 20 meters D. 160 meters 81. What appears to be the major cause of the sporadic-E condition? A. Wind shear B. Sunspots C. Temperature inversions D. Meteors 82. What is a selective fading effect? A. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station D. A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations 83. What is the propagation effect called when phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission are experienced at the recovery station? A. Faraday rotation B. Diversity reception C. Selective fading D. Phase shift 84. What is the major cause of selective fading? A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station C. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations D. Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station 85. Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading? A. CW and SSB B. FM and double sideband AM C. SSB and AMTOR D. SSTV and CW 86. How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective fading? A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths C. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect 87. What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications? A. The readability of SSB signals increases B. FM communications are clearer C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. CW signals have a fluttery tone 88. What is the cause of auroral activity? A. A high sunspot level B. A low sunspot level C. The emission of charged particles from the sun D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes 89. In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West 90. Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A. At F-layer height B. In the equatorial band C. At D-layer height D. At E-layer height 91. Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation? A. CW and SSB B. SSB and FM C. FM and CW D. RTTY and AM 92. Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-layer skip B. D-layer skip C. Auroral skip D. Radio waves may be bent 93. How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 1/3 the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance 94. To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited? A. Approximately 1000 miles B. Approximately 500 miles C. Approximately 1500 miles D. Approximately 2000 miles 95. What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away? A. D-layer absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Moonbounce 96. What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with other particles? A. Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave B. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave C. Aurora is created D. Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance 97. What is a frequency standard? A. A net frequency B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies 98. What is a frequency-marker generator? A. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency B. A sweep generator C. A broadband white noise generator D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies 99. How is a frequency-marker generator used? A. In conjunction with a grid-dip meter B. To provide reference points on a receiver dial C. As the basic frequency element of a transmitter D. To directly measure wavelength 100. What is a frequency counter? A. A frequency measuring device B. A frequency marker generator C. A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use before automatic transmissions are made D. A broadband white noise generator 101. How is a frequency counter used? A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial B. To generate a frequency standard C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter D. To measure frequency 102. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz 103. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-0.1 ppm? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz 104. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-10 ppm? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz 105. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-1.0 ppm? A. 43.21 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 1.0 MHz D. 432.1 Hz 106. What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-0.1 ppm? A. 43.21 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 432.1 Hz D. 0.2 MHz 107. What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/-10 ppm? A. 10 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 4321 Hz D. 432.1 Hz 108. What is a dip-meter? A. A field strength meter B. An SWR meter C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current D. A marker generator 109. Why is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators? A. It can measure signal strength accurately B. It can measure frequency accurately C. It can measure transmitter output power accurately D. It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit 110. How does a dip-meter function? A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector coil B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current D. Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q 111. What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency 112. What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being checked? A. Resistive and inductive B. Inductive and capacitive C. Resistive and capacitive D. Strong field 113. How tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? A. As loosely as possible, for best accuracy B. As tightly as possible, for best accuracy C. First loose, then tight, for best accuracy D. With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked, for best accuracy 114. What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with the tuned circuit being checked? A. Harmonics are generated B. A less accurate reading results C. Cross modulation occurs D. Intermodulation distortion occurs 115. What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments 116. What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a D'Arsonval movement type meter? A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size B. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current C. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass D. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance 117. What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of a frequency counter? A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base stability B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base stability D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic 118. How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved? A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical sweep rate C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency response D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency response 119. How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? A. By using slower digital logic B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base D. By using faster digital logic 120. What is the condition called which occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? A. Amplifier desensitization B. Neutralization C. Adjacent channel interference D. Intermodulation interference 121. How does intermodulation interference between two transmitters usually occur? A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead 122. How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line 123. What can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with an emission J3E transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency B. Increased intelligibility C. Sideband inversion D. Distortion 124. How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? A. By using a push-push amplifier B. By using a push-pull amplifier C. By operating class C D. By operating class AB 125. What is receiver desensitizing? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low B. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high C. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down 126. What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band? A. Desensitizing B. Quieting C. Cross modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback 127. What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? A. Intermodulation distortion B. Quieting C. Desensitizing D. Overloading 128. What causes receiver desensitizing? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Squelch gain adjusted too high C. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency D. Squelch gain adjusted too low 129. How can receiver desensitizing be reduced? A. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver B. Increase the transmitter audio gain C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain D. Increase the receiver bandwidth 130. What is cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal D. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal 131. What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? A. Intermodulation distortion B. Cross-modulation interference C. Receiver quieting D. Capture effect 132. How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced? A. By installing a filter at the receiver B. By using a better antenna C. By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain D. By adjusting the pass-band tuning 133. What is the result of cross-modulation? A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals B. Receiver quieting C. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal D. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier 134. What is the capture effect? A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver C. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal 135. What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one particular emission F3E signal by another emission F3E signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination 136. With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced? A. FM B. SSB C. AM D. CW 137. What is reactive power? A. Wattless, non-productive power B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage D. Power consumed in circuit Q 138. What is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power B. True power C. Peak envelope power D. Reactive power 139. What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A. Potential energy B. Amperes-joules C. Joules-coulombs D. Kinetic energy 140. What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances in series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them? A. Capacitance B. Resonance C. Conductance D. Resistance 141. What is resonance in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum 142. Under what conditions does resonance occur in an electrical circuit? A. When the power factor is at a minimum B. When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal C. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency D. When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency 143. What is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an electrical circuit when the inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance? A. Reactive quiescence B. High Q C. Reactive equilibrium D. Resonance 144. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance C. Approximately equal to XL D. Approximately equal to XC 145. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to XL C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to XC 146. What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is dc D. It is zero 147. What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is dc D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero 148. What is the skin effect? A. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases B. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases C. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance D. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance 149. What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF current flows along the surface of the conductor? A. Layer effect B. Seeburg Effect C. Skin effect D. Resonance 150. Where does practically all of RF current flow in a conductor? A. Along the surface B. In the center of the conductor C. In the magnetic field around the conductor D. In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center 151. Why does practically all of an RF current flow within a few thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface? A. Because of skin effect B. Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the DC resistance C. Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior D. Because of the ac-resistance of the conductor's self inductance 152. Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC? A. Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect C. Because of skin effect D. Because conductors are non-linear devices 153. What is a magnetic field? A. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet B. A force set up when current flows through a conductor C. The force between the plates of a charged capacitor D. The force that drives current through a resistor 154. In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is flowing? A. In the same direction as the current B. In a direction opposite to the current flow C. In all directions; omnidirectional D. In a direction determined by the left hand rule 155. What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. A battery B. A transformer C. A capacitor D. An inductor 156. What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Coulombs B. Joules C. Watts D. Volts 157. What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the plates B. Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates C. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates D. Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates 158. What is the dielectric constant for air? A. Approximately 1 B. Approximately 2 C. Approximately 4 D. Approximately 0 159. What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current B. The ratio of the current to the resistance C. The diameter of the conductor D. The amount of current 160. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 79.6 MHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 3.56 MHz D. 7.96 MHz 161. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? A. 1.99 kHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 1.99 MHz D. 1.78 kHz 162. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 3.18 MHz B. 3.18 kHz C. 7.12 MHz D. 7.12 kHz 163. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 10.1 MHz B. 63.7 MHz C. 10.1 kHz D. 63.7 kHz 164. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 13.1 MHz B. 14.5 MHz C. 14.5 kHz D. 13.1 kHz 165. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads? A. 19.9 kHz B. 17.8 kHz C. 19.9 MHz D. 17.8 MHz 166. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads? A. 2.84 MHz B. 28.4 MHz C. 21.3 MHz D. 2.13 MHz 167. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? A. 23.7 MHz B. 23.7 kHz C. 35.4 kHz D. 35.4 MHz 168. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads? A. 28.1 kHz B. 28.1 MHz C. 49.7 MHz D. 49.7 kHz 169. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads? A. 17.7 MHz B. 17.7 kHz C. 53.1 MHz D. 53.1 kHz 170. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads? A. 50.3 MHz B. 15.9 MHz C. 15.9 kHz D. 50.3 kHz 171. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? A. 29.1 kHz B. 29.1 MHz C. 5.31 MHz D. 5.31 kHz 172. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads? A. 23.7 kHz B. 3.54 kHz C. 23.7 MHz D. 3.54 MHz 173. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads? A. 2.65 kHz B. 20.5 kHz C. 2.65 MHz D. 20.5 MHz 174. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads? A. 18.4 MHz B. 2.12 MHz C. 18.4 kHz D. 2.12 kHz 175. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 1.33 kHz B. 14.5 MHz C. 1.33 MHz D. 14.5 kHz 176. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads? A. 6.63 MHz B. 6.63 kHz C. 10.3 MHz D. 10.3 kHz 177. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads? A. 3.18 MHz B. 3.18 kHz C. 7.12 kHz D. 7.12 MHz 178. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 3.56 MHz B. 7.96 kHz C. 3.56 kHz D. 7.96 MHz 179. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads? A. 1.77 MHz B. 1.68 MHz C. 1.77 kHz D. 1.68 kHz 180. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 189 Hz D. 58.7 kHz 181. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218? A. 58.7 kHz B. 606 kHz C. 47.3 kHz D. 16.5 kHz 182. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 211 kHz B. 16.5 kHz C. 47.3 kHz D. 21.1 kHz 183. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218? A. 21.1 kHz B. 27.9 kHz C. 17 kHz D. 58.7 kHz 184. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 95 kHz B. 10.5 kHz C. 10.5 MHz D. 17 kHz 185. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 4.49 kHz B. 44.9 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 222.6 kHz 186. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225? A. 4.49 kHz B. 44.9 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 223 kHz 187. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195? A. 92.8 kHz B. 10.8 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 44.9 kHz 188. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 22.3 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 10.8 kHz 189. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 22.3 kHz B. 10.8 kHz C. 13.1 kHz D. 76.2 kHz 190. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms? A. 75.1 B. 7.51 C. 71.5 D. 0.013 191. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms? A. 4.31 B. 43.1 C. 13.3 D. 0.023 192. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance is 180 ohms? A. 0.00735 B. 7.35 C. 0.136 D. 13.3 193. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000 ohms? A. 7.35 B. 0.0319 C. 71.5 D. 31.9 194. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms? A. 36.8 B. 0.273 C. 0.368 D. 2.73 195. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms? A. 0.221 B. 4.52 C. 0.00452 D. 22.1 196. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000 ohms? A. 22.1 B. 39 C. 25.6 D. 0.0256 197. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance is 2,200 ohms? A. 0.031 B. 32.2 C. 31.1 D. 25.6 198. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance is 220 ohms? A. 23 B. 0.00435 C. 4.35 D. 0.23 199. What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance is 1,800 ohms? A. 1.84 B. 0.543 C. 54.3 D. 23 200. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current 201. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 202. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 ohms? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 203. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 204. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 205. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current 206. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and X1 is 75 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current 207. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 ohms? A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current 208. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current 209. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and X1 is 25 ohms? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current 210. Why would the rate at which electrical energy is used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current? A. Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between the current and voltage B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit D. Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the current and voltage 211. In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current 212. What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 213. What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 214. What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.5 C. 0.866 D. 0.577 215. How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 when the input is 100-VAC and 4-amperes is being drawn? A. 400 watts B. 80 watts C. 2000 watts D. 50 watts 216. How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 when the input is 200-VAC and 5-amperes is being drawn? A. 200 watts B. 1000 watts C. 1600 watts D. 600 watts 217. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 218. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 219. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 220. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB operation feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 221. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 222. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 223. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 224. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 225. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 226. What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole B. 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. 632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole D. 159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole 227. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms? A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts 228. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms? A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 229. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms? A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 230. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts 231. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts 232. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts 233. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts 234. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts 235. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 236. In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? A. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts C. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts 237. What is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier? A B C D 238. Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact B. Electrolytic and junction C. Electrolytic and point contact D. Vacuum and point contact 239. What is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode? A B C D 240. What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes? A. Hot carrier and tunnel B. Varactor and rectifying C. Voltage regulator and voltage reference D. Forward and reversed biased 241. What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current C. A negative resistance region D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage 242. What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? A. 2.4 volts to 200 volts B. 1.2 volts to 7 volts C. 3 volts to 2000 volts D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts 243. What is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode? A B C D 244. What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. A high forward resistance B. A very high PIV C. A negative resistance region D. A high forward current rating 245. What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Point contact diodes B. Zener diodes C. Tunnel diodes D. Junction diodes 246. What is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode? A B C D 247. What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. A varactor diode B. A tunnel diode C. A silicon-controlled rectifier D. A Zener diode 248. What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode? A. It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current B. Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage C. It has a negative resistance region D. It has a very high PIV 249. What is a common use of a varactor diode? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As a voltage controlled inductance D. As a voltage controlled capacitance 250. What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. As balanced mixers in SSB generation B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors 251. What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. The peak inverse voltage B. The junction temperature C. The forward voltage D. The back EMF 252. How are junction diodes rated? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance B. Maximum reverse current and PIV C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance D. Maximum forward current and PIV 253. What is a common use for point contact diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF detector D. As a high voltage rectifier 254. What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small semi-conductor die? A. Zener diode B. Varactor diode C. Junction diode D. Point contact diode 255. What is common use for PIN diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF switch D. As a high voltage rectifier 256. What special type of diode is often use for RF switches, attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices? A. Tunnel diodes B. Varactor diodes C. PIN diodes D. Junction diodes 257. What is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? A B C D 258. What is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor? A B C D 259. What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid B. Base, collector and emitter C. Gate, source and sink D. Input, output and ground 260. What is the meaning of the term alpha with regard to bipolar transistors? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to collector current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current 261. What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor? A. Gamma B. Epsilon C. Alpha D. Beta 262. What is the meaning of the term beta with regard to bipolar transistors? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to emitter current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change in base current with respect to gate current 263. What is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Delta 264. What is the meaning of the term alpha cutoff frequency with regard to bipolar transistors? A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration B. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration C. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration D. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration 265. What is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor? A. Corner frequency B. Alpha cutoff frequency C. Beta cutoff frequency D. Alpha rejection frequency 266. What is the meaning of the term beta cutoff frequency with regard to a bipolar transistor? A. That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor B. That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor C. That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor D. That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor 267. What is the meaning of the term transition region with regard to a transistor? A. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction B. The area of maximum P-type charge C. The area of maximum N-type charge D. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type material 268. What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? A. The collector current is at its maximum value B. The collector current is at its minimum value C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value 269. What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off? A. There is no base current B. The transistor is at its operating point C. No current flows from emitter to collector D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector 270. What is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor? A B C D 271. What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2 and emitter B. Gate, cathode and anode C. Gate, base 1 and base 2 D. Gate, source and sink 272. For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated? A. Just below the saturation point B. Just above the saturation point C. At the saturation point D. At 1.414 times the saturation point 273. What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics? A. Silicon and gold B. Silicon and germanium C. Galena and germanium D. Galena and bismuth 274. What is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier? A B C D 275. What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode and gate B. Gate, source and sink C. Base, collector and emitter D. Gate, base 1 and base 2 276. What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR? A. Conducting and nonconducting B. Oscillating and quiescent C. Forward conducting and reverse conducting D. NPN conduction and PNP conduction 277. When an SCR is in the triggered or on condition, its electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured between its cathode and anode)? A. The junction diode B. The tunnel diode C. The hot-carrier diode D. The varactor diode 278. Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier? A. During a switching transition B. When it is used as a detector C. When it is gated "off" D. When it is gated "on" 279. What is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC? A B C D 280. What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC B. Bilateral SCR C. Unijunction transistor D. Field effect transistor 281. What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2 B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2 C. Base, emitter and collector D. Gate, source and sink 282. What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? A B C D 283. What is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting diode? A. 60 volts and 20 mA B. 5 volts and 50 mA C. 1.7 volts and 20 mA D. 0.7 volts and 60 mA 284. What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? A. Reverse bias B. Forward bias C. Zero bias D. Inductive bias 285. What are the advantages of using an LED? A. Low power consumption and long life B. High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption C. High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement D. A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source 286. What colors are available in LEDs? A. Yellow, blue, red, brown and green B. Red, violet, yellow, white and green C. Violet, blue, yellow, orange and red D. Red, green, orange, white and yellow 287. What is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp? A B C D 288. What type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio work? A. NE-1 B. NE-2 C. NE-3 D. NE-4 289. What is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? A. Approximately 67 volts B. Approximately 5 volts C. Approximately 5.6 volts D. Approximately 110 volts 290. What is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp? A. Approximately 110-V AC RMS B. Approximately 5-V AC RMS C. Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS D. Approximately 48-V AC RMS 291. How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF? A. A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF B. A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF C. A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency RF D. A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF 292. What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for emission J3E? A. 6 kHz at -6 dB B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB C. 500 Hz at -6 dB D. 15 kHz at -6 dB 293. What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for emission A3E? A. 1 kHz at -6 dB B. 500 Hz at -6 dB C. 6 kHz at -6 dB D. 15 kHz at -6 dB 294. What is a crystal lattice filter? A. A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals B. An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals C. A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals 295. What technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance crystal lattice filters? A. Splitting and tumbling B. Tumbling and grinding C. Etching and splitting D. Etching and grinding 296. What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice filter? A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals B. The center frequency chosen for the filter C. The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter 297. What is a linear electronic voltage regulator? A. A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output B. A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on" state C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions D. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current 298. What is a switching electronic voltage regulator? A. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current B. A regulator that provides more than one output voltage C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions D. A regulator that gives a ramp voltage as its output 299. What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. A Zener diode B. A tunnel diode C. An SCR D. A varactor diode 300. What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source? A. A constant current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt regulator D. A shunt current source 301. What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications where the load on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant? A. A constant current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt current source D. A shunt regulator 302. To obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator? A. Approximately 2.0 volts B. Approximately 3.0 volts C. Approximately 6.0 volts D. Approximately 10.0 volts 303. What is the meaning of the term remote sensing with regard to a linear voltage regulator? A. The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to the load B. Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops C. The load connection is made outside the feedback loop D. The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage 304. What is a three-terminal regulator? A. A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current B. A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current C. A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors D. A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element 305. What the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator? A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum output voltage D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum output current 306. What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle 307. What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 308. What is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B amplifier? A. Output for the entire input signal cycle B. Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle C. Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle D. Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle 309. What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the output essentially in 180 degree pulses? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D 310. What is a Class AB amplifier? A. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the signal input cycle B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle D. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle 311. What is the distinguishing feature of a Class C amplifier? A. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle D. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle 312. What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 313. Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 314. Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 315. Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class AB 316. What is an L-network? A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor C. A network used to generate a leading phase angle D. A network used to generate a lagging phase angle 317. What is a pi-network? A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors B. A Power Incidence network C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor 318. What is a pi-L-network? A. A Phase Inverter Load network B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors C. A network with only three discrete parts D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground 319. Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L-network B. Pi-network C. Inverse L-network D. Pi-L-network 320. What are the three most commonly used networks to accomplish a match between an amplifying device and a transmission line? A. M-network, pi-network and T-network B. T-network, M-network and Q-network C. L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network D. L-network, M-network and C-network 321. How are networks able to transform one impedance to another? A. Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load B. The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of an impedance C. The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an impedance D. The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance and change the value of the resistive part of an impedance 322. Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio? A. L-network B. Pi-network C. Constant-K D. Constant-M 323. Why is the L-network of limited utility in impedance matching? A. It matches a small impedance range B. It has limited power handling capabilities C. It is thermally unstable D. It is prone to self resonance 324. What is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna? A. Greater transformation range B. Higher efficiency C. Lower losses D. Greater harmonic suppression 325. Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L-network B. Pi-network C. Pi-L-network D. Inverse-Pi network 326. What are the three general groupings of filters? A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive C. Audio, radio and capacitive D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce 327. What is a constant-K filter? A. A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant B. A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of frequencies C. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies D. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth 328. What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? A. It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from the passband B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies C. It uses elliptic functions D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied 329. What is an m-derived filter? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M" D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. 330. What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies B. It only requires capacitors C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband D. It requires only inductors 331. What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband B. It allows ripple in the passband C. It only requires inductors D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies 332. When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency B. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter C. When the number of components must be minimized D. When high power levels must be filtered 333. What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? A. It must have a gain of less than 1 B. It must be neutralized C. It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input 334. What are three major oscillator circuits often used in amateur radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce 335. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley oscillator? A. Through a neutralizing capacitor B. Through a capacitive divider C. Through link coupling D. Through a tapped coil 336. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a capacitive divider D. Through a neutralizing capacitor 337. How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a capacitive divider D. Through capacitive coupling 338. Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal? A. Negative feedback B. Hartley C. Colpitts D. Pierce 339. What is the piezoelectric effect? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light 340. What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator? A. It is easy to neutralize B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit C. It can be tuned over a wide range D. It has a high output power 341. Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO? A. Pierce B. Colpitts C. Hartley D. Negative feedback 342. Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO? A. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance B. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in C. It is stable D. It has high output power 343. What is meant by the term modulation? A. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio is reached B. Carrier rejection through phase nulling C. A linear amplification mode D. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier 344. What are the two general categories of methods for generating emission F3E? A. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier B. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator on the oscillator C. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance modulator on the final amplifier D. The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced modulator on the oscillator 345. What is a reactance modulator? A. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM signals B. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM signals C. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM signals D. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM signals 346. What is a balanced modulator? A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal 347. How can an emission J3E signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter 348. How can an emission A3E signal be generated? A. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter B. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator D. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier 349. How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined? A. Efficiency = (RF power out) / (DC power in) X 100% B. Efficiency = (RF power in) / (RF power out) X 100% C. Efficiency = (RF power in) / (DC power in) X 100% D. Efficiency = (DC power in) / (RF power in) X 100% 350. For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum tube Class C amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500-volts at the plate and 500-milliamperes plate current? A. 2000 ohms B. 1500 ohms C. 4800 ohms D. 480 ohms 351. For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum Class B amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 800-volts at the plate and 75-milliamperes plate current? A. 679.4 ohms B. 60 ohms C. 6794 ohms D. 10,667 ohms 352. For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum tube Class A operation what should the plate-load resistance be with 250-volts at the plate and 25-milliamperes plate current? A. 7692 ohms B. 3250 ohms C. 325 ohms D. 769.2 ohms 353. For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what should the load resistance be with 12-volts at the collector and 5 watts power output? A. 100.3 ohms B. 14.4 ohms C. 10.3 ohms D. 144 ohms 354. What is the flywheel effect? A. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the transmitter is turned off B. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit C. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC D. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several hops through the ionosphere 355. How can a power amplifier be neutralized? A. By increasing the grid drive B. By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input D. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the output 356. What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level? A. Approximately 120 B. Approximately 12 C. Approximately 1200 D. Approximately 1.2 357. How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR B. By tuning for maximum power output C. By neutralization D. By tuning the output 358. What is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier having an output pi-network? A. Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor B. Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor C. Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the plate current with the loading capacitor D. Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor 359. What is the process of detection? A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal C. The modulation of a carrier D. The mixing of noise with the received signal 360. What is the principle of detection in a diode detector? A. Rectification and filtering of RF B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage C. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency 361. What is a product detector? A. A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer B. A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies C. A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier D. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products 362. How are emission F3E signals detected? A. By a balanced modulator B. By a frequency discriminator C. By a product detector D. By a phase splitter 363. What is a frequency discriminator? A. A circuit for detecting FM signals B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals C. An automatic bandswitching circuit D. An FM generator 364. What is the mixing process? A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies 365. What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency 366. What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process? A. Automatic squelching and increased selectivity B. Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design C. Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching D. Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity 367. What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches the mixer circuit? A. Spurious mixer products are generated B. Mixer blanking occurs C. Automatic limiting occurs D. A beat frequency is generated 368. How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? A. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage 369. Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage? A. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated B. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal C. To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products D. To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator 370. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? A. To provide most of the receiver gain B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC C. To improve the receiver's noise figure D. To develop the AGC voltage 371. What is an i-f amplifier stage? A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier B. A receiver demodulator C. A receiver filter D. A buffer oscillator 372. What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference B. Interference to other services C. Image rejection and selectivity D. Noise figure and distortion 373. What is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Gain B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion C. Dynamic response D. Image rejection 374. What is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Sensitivity B. Selectivity C. Noise figure performance D. Squelch gain 375. What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Linear voltage regulator C. Common emitter amplifier D. Emitter follower amplifier 376. In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? A. Load resistors B. Fixed bias C. Self bias D. Feedback 377. In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1? A. Decoupling B. Output coupling C. Self bias D. Input coupling 378. In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3? A. AC feedback B. Input coupling C. Power supply decoupling D. Emitter bypass 379. In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3? A. Fixed bias B. Emitter bypass C. Output load resistor D. Self bias 380. What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11? A. High-gain amplifier B. Common-collector amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator D. Grounded-emitter amplifier 381. In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R? A. Emitter load B. Fixed bias C. Collector load D. Voltage regulation 382. In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1? A. Input coupling B. Output coupling C. Emitter bypass D. Collector bypass 383. In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2? A. Output coupling B. Emitter bypass C. Input coupling D. Hum filtering 384. What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Grounded emitter amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator D. Emitter follower 385. What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. Line voltage stabilization B. Voltage reference C. Peak clipping D. Hum filtering 386. What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. It increases the output ripple B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source C. It increases the current handling capability D. It provides D1 with current 387. What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. It resonates at the ripple frequency B. It provides fixed bias for Q1 C. It decouples the output D. It filters the supply voltage 388. What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. It bypasses hum around D1 B. It is a brute force filter for the output C. To self resonate at the hum frequency D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1 389. What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. It prevents self-oscillation B. It provides brute force filtering of the output C. It provides fixed bias for Q1 D. It clips the peaks of the ripple 390. What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source B. It couples hum to D1 C. It supplies current to D1 D. It bypasses hum around D1 391. What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12? A. It provides fixed bias for Q1 B. It provides fixed bias for D1 C. It decouples hum from D1 D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 392. What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 80 meter band? A. 150 picofarads B. 200 picofarads C. 100 picofarads D. 100 microfarads 393. What value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40 meter band? A. 200 microhenrys B. 150 microhenrys C. 5 millihenrys D. 5 microhenrys 394. What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 20 meter band? A. 64 picofarads B. 6 picofarads C. 12 picofarads D. 88 microfarads 395. What value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15 meter band? A. 2 microhenrys B. 30 microhenrys C. 4 microhenrys D. 15 microhenrys 396. What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry inductor to resonate in the 160 meter band? A. 78 picofarads B. 25 picofarads C. 405 picofarads D. 40.5 microfarads 397. What is emission A3C? A. Facsimile B. RTTY C. ATV D. Slow Scan TV 398. What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A. A3F B. A3C C. F3F D. F3C 399. What is facsimile? A. The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy B. The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture C. The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means D. The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means 400. What is emission F3C? A. Voice transmission B. Slow Scan TV C. RTTY D. Facsimile 401. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A. F3C B. A3C C. F3F D. A3F 402. What is emission A3F? A. RTTY B. Television C. SSB D. Modulated CW 403. What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? A. F3F B. A3F C. A3C D. F3C 404. What is emission F3F? A. Modulated CW B. Facsimile C. RTTY D. Television 405. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? A. A3F B. A3C C. F3F D. F3C 406. What type of emission results when a single sideband transmitter is used for slow-scan television? A. J3A B. F3F C. A3F D. J3F 407. How can an emission F3E signal be produced? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier C. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator D. By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator 408. How can an emission A3E signal be produced? A. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit C. By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop D. By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier 409. How can an emission J3E signal be produced? A. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering B. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning C. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing D. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization 410. What is meant by the term deviation ratio? A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency 411. In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index B. Modulation index C. Deviation ratio D. Modulation ratio 412. What is the deviation ratio for an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66 413. What is the deviation ratio for an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 414. What is meant by the term modulation index? A. The processor index B. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency 415. In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency? A. FM compressibility B. Quieting index C. Percentage of modulation D. Modulation index 416. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with the modulated frequency? A. The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases B. The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases C. The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) D. The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) 417. In an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? A. 3 B. 0.3 C. 3000 D. 1000 418. What is the modulation index of an emission F3E transmitter producing an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6-kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? A. 6000 B. 3 C. 2000 D. 1/3 419. What are electromagnetic waves? A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other 420. What is a wave front? A. A voltage pulse in a conductor B. A current pulse in a conductor C. A voltage pulse across a resistor D. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave 421. At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? A. Approximately 300 million meters per second B. Approximately 468 million meters per second C. Approximately 186,300 feet per second D. Approximately 300 million miles per second 422. What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave? A. An electric field and a current field B. An electric field and a magnetic field C. An electric field and a voltage field D. A voltage field and a current field 423. Why do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great extent? A. The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator B. The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield C. Because of Eddy currents D. The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field 424. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves travel in free space? A. The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned B. Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index C. The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to its source D. Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and magnetic fields 425. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized? A. The electric field is parallel to the earth B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical 426. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having circular polarization? A. The electric field is bent into a circular shape B. The electric field rotates C. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth D. The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna 427. When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? A. Circular B. Horizontal C. Vertical D. Elliptical 428. When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? A. Circular B. Horizontal C. Elliptical D. Vertical 429. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic field? A. Horizontal B. Circular C. Elliptical D. Vertical 430. When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical 431. What is a sine wave? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner 432. How many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle? A. 180 times B. 4 times C. 2 times D. 360 times 433. How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? A. 90 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 360 degrees 434. What is the period of a wave? A. The time required to complete one cycle B. The number of degrees in one cycle C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle D. The amplitude of the wave 435. What is a square wave? A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle B. A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level C. A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle D. A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal portions of the cycle time 436. What is a wave called which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level? A. A sine wave B. A cosine wave C. A square wave D. A rectangular wave 437. Which sine waves make up a square wave? A. 0.707 times the fundamental frequency B. The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics C. The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics D. The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics 438. What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square wave B. Sine wave C. Cosine wave D. Tangent wave 439. What is a sawtooth wave? A. A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time at each level B. A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or vice versa) C. A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle D. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed 440. What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. A cosine wave B. A square wave C. A sawtooth wave D. A sine wave 441. Which sine waves make up a sawtooth wave? A. The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics B. The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics C. The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics D. The fundamental frequency and all harmonics 442. What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. A sawtooth wave B. A square wave C. A sine wave D. A cosine wave 443. What is the meaning of the term root mean square value of an AC voltage? A. The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of the peak AC voltage B. The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a peak AC voltage C. The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value D. The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value 444. What is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a certain value of AC voltage? A. Cosine voltage B. Power factor C. Root mean square D. Average voltage 445. What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of a complex waveform? A. By using a grid dip meter B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter C. By using an absorption wavemeter D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor 446. What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? A. 117-VAC B. 331-VAC C. 82.7-VAC D. 165.5-VAC 447. What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts B. 165.5 volts C. 117 volts D. 331 volts 448. What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts B. 117 volts C. 331 volts D. 165.5 volts 449. What is the RMS voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine wave? A. 233-VAC B. 330-VAC C. 58.3-VAC D. 117-VAC 450. What is the RMS value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 117-VAC B. 165-VAC C. 234-VAC D. 300-VAC 451. For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to average power during a modulation peak in an emission J3E signal? A. Approximately 1.0 to 1 B. Approximately 25 to 1 C. Approximately 2.5 to 1 D. Approximately 100 to 1 452. In an emission J3E signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal B. The degree of carrier suppression C. The speech characteristics D. The amplifier power 453. What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an emission F3E transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts? A. Approximately 900 watts B. Approximately 1765 watts C. Approximately 2500 watts D. Approximately 3000 watts 454. What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in an emission F1B transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts? A. Approximately 850 watts B. Approximately 1250 watts C. Approximately 1667 watts D. Approximately 2000 watts 455. What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an emission N0N transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. Approximately 250 watts B. Approximately 600 watts C. Approximately 800 watts D. Approximately 1000 watts 456. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 160 meter band receiver? A. In the detector B. Man-made noise C. In the receiver front end D. In the atmosphere 457. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 2 meter band receiver? A. In the receiver front end B. Man-made noise C. In the atmosphere D. In the ionosphere 458. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25 meter band receiver? A. In the audio amplifier B. In the receiver front end C. In the ionosphere D. Man-made noise 459. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70 meter band receiver? A. In the atmosphere B. In the ionosphere C. In the receiver front end D. Man-made noise 460. What is meant by the term antenna gain? A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction C. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power of the transmitter D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing lines present) 461. What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna? A. Effective radiated power B. Antenna gain C. Conversion gain D. Peak effective power 462. What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well C. The angle between the half-power radiation points D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements 463. How can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be determined? A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna 464. What is a trap antenna? A. An antenna for rejecting interfering signals B. A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions C. An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of the presence of parallel LC networks D. An antenna with a large capture area 465. What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands B. It has high gain C. It minimizes harmonic radiation D. It may be used for multiband operation 466. What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna? A. It will radiate harmonics B. It can only be used for single band operation C. It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies D. It must be neutralized 467. What is the principle of a trap antenna? A. Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances B. The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna C. The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around the antenna "sees" a high impedance D. The traps increase the antenna gain 468. What is a parasitic element of an antenna? A. An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element B. An element dependent on the antenna structure for support C. An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than from a transmission line D. A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy 469. How does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field? A. By the RF current received from a connected transmission line B. By interacting with the earth's magnetic field C. By altering the phase of the current on the driven element D. By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric field 470. How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? A. It is about 5% longer B. It is about 5% shorter C. It is twice as long D. It is one-half as long 471. How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? A. It is about 5% longer B. It is about 5% shorter C. It is one-half as long D. It is twice as long 472. What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna? A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line B. The specific impedance of the antenna C. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna D. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals 473. What is the term used for an equivalent resistance which would dissipate the same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna? A. Space resistance B. Loss resistance C. Transmission line loss D. Radiation resistance 474. Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna 475. What are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna? A. Transmission line length and height of antenna B. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the length/diameter ratio of the conductors C. It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant D. Sunspot activity and the time of day 476. What is a driven element of an antenna? A. Always the rearmost element B. Always the forwardmost element C. The element fed by the transmission line D. The element connected to the rotator 477. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam antenna? A. 1/4 wavelength B. 1/2 wavelength C. 3/4 wavelength D. 1 wavelength 478. What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a transmitter through a transmission line? A. Driven element B. Director element C. Reflector element D. Parasitic element 479. What is meant by the term antenna efficiency? A. Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (transmission resistance) X 100% B. Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (total resistance) X 100% C. Efficiency = (total resistance) / (radiation resistance) X 100% D. Efficiency = (effective radiated power) / (transmitter output) X 100% 480. What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? A. Effective radiated power B. Radiation conversion loss C. Antenna efficiency D. Beamwidth 481. What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance C. Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance 482. How can the antenna efficiency of a HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna? A. By installing a good ground radial system B. By isolating the coax shield from ground C. By shortening the vertical D. By lengthening the vertical 483. Why does a half-wave antenna operate at very high efficiency? A. Because it is non-resonant B. Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation resistance C. Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power D. Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types of antennas 484. What is a folded dipole antenna? A. A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long B. A ground plane antenna C. A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength piece of wire D. A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance 485. How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna? A. It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth B. It is essentially the same C. It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole D. It is greater 486. What is the input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna? A. 300 ohms B. 72 ohms C. 50 ohms D. 450 ohms 487. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum 488. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum? A. Velocity factor B. Characteristic impedance C. Surge impedance D. Standing wave ratio 489. What is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable? A. 2.70 B. 0.66 C. 0.30 D. 0.10 490. What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance B. The line length C. Dielectrics in the line D. The center conductor resistivity 491. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable B. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line D. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line 492. What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? A. 20 meters B. 3.55 meters C. 2.51 meters D. 0.25 meters 493. What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? A. 10.5 meters B. 6.88 meters C. 24 meters D. 50 meters 494. What is the physical length of a parallel antenna feedline which is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.82.) A. 15 meters B. 24.3 meters C. 8.7 meters D. 70.8 meters 495. What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feedline at 3.65 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.) A. Electrical length times 0.8 B. Electrical length divided by 0.8 C. 80 meters D. 160 meters 496. In a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes? A. At the ends B. At the feed points C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end 497. In a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes? A. At the ends B. At the feed point C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end 498. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current B. Minimum voltage and maximum current C. Maximum voltage and minimum current D. Minimum voltage and minimum current 499. At the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of voltage and current exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current B. Maximum voltage and minimum current C. Minimum voltage and minimum current D. Minimum voltage and maximum current 500. Why is the inductance required for a base loaded HF mobile antenna less than that for an inductance placed further up the whip? A. The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base B. The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base C. The current is greater at the top D. The voltage is less at the top 501. What happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? A. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases B. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases C. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases D. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases 502. Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? A. To swamp out harmonics B. To maximize losses C. To minimize losses D. To minimize the Q 503. Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna? A. To improve reception B. To lower the losses C. To lower the Q D. To tune out the capacitive reactance 504. For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? A. Near the center of the vertical radiator B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator C. As close to the transmitter as possible D. At a voltage node 505. What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased B. It is decreased C. No change occurs D. It becomes flat 506. Why are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur stations? A. They are very broad banded B. They have high gain in all azimuthal directions C. They are the most efficient radiators D. They require no calculations 507. What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? A. Lower Q B. Greater structural strength C. Higher losses D. Improved radiation efficiency