3AA 1.1 A What is the CONTROL POINT of an amateur station? A. The location at which the control operator function is performed B. The operating position of any amateur station operating as a repeater user station C. The physical location of any Amateur Radio transmitter, even if it is operated by radio link from some other location D. The variable frequency oscillator (VFO) of the transmitter 3AA 1.2 B What is the term for the location at which the control operator function is performed? A. The operating desk B. The control point C. The station location D. The manual control location 3AA 2.1 B What are the HF privileges authorized to a Technician class control operator in ITU Region 2? A. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when station location is outside Region 2), 14,100 to 14,150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,150, and 28,100 to 28,500 kHz only B. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when station location is outside Region 2), 21,100 to 21,200 kHz, and 28,100 to 28,500 kHz only C. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only D. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 when station location is outside Region 2), 21,100 to 21,200 kHz only 3AA 2.2 C Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced only B. Extra, Advanced, General only C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only D. Extra, Advanced, Technician, Novice 3AA 2.3 B Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only 3AA 2.4 A Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only 3AA 2.5 B Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only 3AA 3.1 A How often do amateur licenses generally need to be renewed? A. Every 10 years B. Every 5 years C. Every 2 years D. They are lifetime licenses 3AA 3.2 A The FCC currently issues amateur licenses carrying 10-year terms. What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an expired 10-year license? A. 2 years B. 5 years C. 10 years D. There is no grace period 3AA 3.3 A What action would you take to modify your operator/primary station license? A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in Gettysburg, PA B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest FCC field office C. Write the FCC at their nearest field office D. There is no need to modify an amateur license between renewals 3AA 4.1 B On what frequencies within the 6-meter wavelength band may FM phone emissions be transmitted? A. 50.0-54.0 MHz only B. 50.1-54.0 MHz only C. 51.0-54.0 MHz only D. 52.0-54.0 MHz only 3AA 4.2 A On what frequencies within the 2-meter wavelength band may FM image emissions be transmitted? A. 144.1-148.0 MHz only B. 146.0-148.0 MHz only C. 144.0-148.0 MHz only D. 146.0-147.0 MHz only 3AA 4.3 A What emission type may always be used for station identification, regardless of the transmitting frequency? A. CW B. RTTY C. MCW D. Phone 3AA 5.1 D If you are using a frequency within a band designated to the amateur service on a secondary basis and another station assigned to a primary service on that band causes interference, what action should you take? A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference D. Change frequencies; you may also be causing interference to the other station and that would be a violation of FCC rules 3AA 5.2 C What is the basic principle of frequency sharing between two stations allocated to a primary service within a frequency band, each in a different ITU Region or Subregion? A. The station with a control operator holding a lesser class of license must yield the frequency to the station with a control operator holding a higher class of license B. The station with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher output power C. Both stations have an equal right to operate on the frequency D. Stations in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2 3AA 5.3 D What must the control operator do while a third-party is participating in radiocommunications? A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph license, no supervision is necessary B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the transmitting frequency on another receiver, to insure that no interference is taking place C. If a radio control link is available, the control operator may leave the room D. The control operator must continuously monitor and supervise the radiocommunication to insure compliance with the rules 3AA 6.1.1 C FCC Rules specify the maximum transmitter power that you may use with your amateur station. At what point in your station is the transmitter power measured? A. By measuring the final amplifier supply voltage inside the transmitter or amplifier B. By measuring the final amplifier supply current inside the transmitter or amplifier C. At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier D. On the antenna itself, after the feed line 3AA 6.1.2 D What is the term used to define the average power supplied to the antenna transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the modulation envelope? A. Peek transmitter power B. Peak output power C. Average radio-frequency power D. Peak envelope power 3AA 6.2.1 C Notwithstanding the numerical limits of the FCC Rules, how much transmitting power shall be used by an amateur station? A. There is no regulation other than the numerical limits B. The minimum power required to achieve S9 signal reports C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication D. The maximum power available, so long as it is under the legal limit 3AA 6.3.1 D What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 146.52 MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 500 watts ERP C. 1000 watts DC input D. 1500 watts PEP output 3AA 6.4.1 B What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in beacon operation? A. 10 watts PEP output B. 100 watts PEP output C. 500 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output 3AA 7.1.1 C What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY transmission between 28 and 50 MHz A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 1200 bauds D. 300 bauds 3AA 7.1.2 B What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY transmission between 50 and 220 MHz? A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 1200 bauds D. 300 bauds 3AA 7.1.3 D What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY transmission above 220 MHz? A. 300 bauds B. 1200 bauds C. 19.6 kilobauds D. 56 kilobauds 3AA 7.2.1 C What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY when transmitted below 50 MHz? A. 100 Hz B. 500 Hz C. 1000 Hz D. 5000 Hz 3AA 7.2.2 C What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY when transmitted above 50 MHz? A. 100 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater B. 500 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater C. The FCC Rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift above 50 MHz D. 5000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater 3AA 7.3.1 A What is the authorized bandwidth of a RTTY, data or multiplexed emission using a specified digital code within the frequency range of 50 to 220 MHz? A. 20 kHz B. 50 kHz C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband emission D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission 3AA 7.3.2 D What is the authorized bandwidth of a RTTY, data or multiplexed emission using an unspecified digital code within the frequency range of 250 to 450 MHz? A. 50 kHz B. 150 kHz C. 200 kHz D. 100 kHz 3AA 7.3.3 D What is the authorized bandwidth of a RTTY, data or multiplexed emission using an unspecified digital code within the 420 to 450 MHz amateur band? A. 50 kHz B. 200 kHz C. 300 kHz D. 100 kHz 3AA 8.1.1 B How must the control operator who has a Novice license and a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination for Technician privileges identify the station when transmitting on 146.34 MHz? A. The new Technician may not operate on 146.34 until his or her new license arrives B. The licensee gives his or her call sign, followed by any suitable word that identifies the slant mark and the identifier "KT" C. No special form of identification is needed D. The licensee gives his or her call sign followed and states the location of the VE examination where he of she obtained the certificate of successful completion 3AA 8.2.1 B Which language(s) must be used when making the station identification by telephony? A. The language being used for the contact may be used if it is not English, providing the US has a third-party traffic agreement with that country B. English must be used for identification C. Any language may be used, if the country which uses that language is a member of the International Telecommunication Union D. The language being used for the contact must be used for identification purposes 3AA 8.3.1 C What does the FCC recommend to aid correct station identification when using phone? A. A speech compressor B. Q signals C. A recognized phonetic alphabet D. Unique words of the operator's choice 3AA 9.1.1 A What is the term used to describe an amateur station transmitting communications for the purpose of observation of propagation and reception or other related experimental activities? A. Beacon operation B. Repeater operation C. Auxiliary operation D. Radio control operation 3AA 9.2.1 A What class of amateur operator license must you hold to operate a beacon station? A. Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class B. General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class C. Amateur Extra class only D. Any license class 3AA 10.1 A What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station is permitted when transmitting signals to control model craft? A. One watt B. One milliwatt C. Two watts D. Three watts 3AA 10.2 C What minimum information must be indicated on the label affixed to a transmitter transmitting signals to control a model craft? A. Station call sign B. Station call sign and operating times C. Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address D. Station call sign, class of license, and operating times 3AA 10.3 D What are the station identification requirements of an amateur station transmitting signals to control a model craft? A. Once every ten minutes and at the beginning and end of each transmission B. Once every ten minutes C. At the beginning and end of each transmission D. Station identification is not required provided that a label indicating the station call sign and the station licensee's name and address is affixed to the station transmitter 3AA 10.4 B Where must the writing indicating the station call sign and the licensee's name and address be affixed in order to operate under the special rules for radio control of remote model craft and vehicles? A. It must be in the operator's possession B. It must be affixed to the transmitter C. It must be affixed to the craft or vehicle D. It must be filed with the nearest FCC field office 3AA 11.1.1 A If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur repeater and the frequency coordinator has coordinated (recommends) the operation of one station and not the other, who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference? A. The licensee of the non-coordinated (unrecommended) repeater B. Both repeater licensees C. The licensee of the coordinated (recommended) repeater D. The frequency coordinator 3AA 11.1.2 B If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur repeater and the frequency coordinator has coordinated (recommends) the operation of both stations, who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference? A. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated for the longest period of time B. Both repeater licensees C. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated most recently D. The frequency coordinator 3AA 11.1.3 A If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur repeater and the frequency coordinator has not coordinated the operation of either station, who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference? A. Both repeater licensees B. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for the longest period of time C. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for the shortest period of time D. The frequency coordinator 3AA 11.2.1 D Under what circumstances does the FCC declare a temporary state of communication emergency? A. When a declaration of war is received from Congress B. When the maximum usable frequency goes above 28 MHz C. When communications facilities in Washington, DC, are disrupted D. When a disaster disrupts normal communications systems in a particular area 3AA 11.2.2 A By what means should a request for a declaration of temporary state of communication emergency be initiated? A. Communication with the FCC Engineer-in-Charge of the affected area B. Communication with the US senator or congressman for the area affected C. Communication with the local emergency coordinator D. Communication with the Chief of the FCC Private Radio Bureau 3AA 11.2.3 C What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary state of communication emergency be initiated? A. Declaration of the areas affected and of organizations authorized to use radio communications in the affected area B. Designation of amateur frequency bands for use only by amateurs participating in emergency communications in the affected area, and complete suspension of Novice operating privileges for the duration of the emergency C. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed during the communication emergency D. Suspension of amateur rules regarding station identification and business communication 3AA 11.2.4 A If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds of transmissions are authorized to amateur stations in such an area? A. Communications which are necessary to meet essential communication needs and facilitate relief actions B. Communications which allow commercial businesses to continue to operate in the affected area C. Communications for which material compensation has been paid to the amateur operator for delivery into the affected area D. Communications which are to be used for program production or newsgathering for broadcasting purposes 3AA 12.1 A What is meant by the term broadcasting? A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public, either direct or relayed B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals emanating from any class of station other than amateur C. The transmission of any one-way radio communication, regardless of purpose or content D. Any one-way or two-way radio communication involving more than two stations 3AA 12.2 C Which of the following is an amateur station that cannot automatically retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Auxiliary station B. Repeater station C. Beacon station D. Space station 3AA 12.3 B Which of the following is an amateur station that is permitted to automatically retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Beacon station B. Space station C. Official bulletin station D. RACES station 3AA 12.4 D What type of radio signals may be directly retransmitted by an amateur radio station? A. AM radio station B. Police or fire department radio station C. NOAA weather station D. US Government communications between space shuttle and associated Earth stations with prior approval from the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) 3AA 12.5 C When may US Government communications between the space shuttle and associated Earth stations be directly retransmitted by an amateur station? A. After prior approval has been obtained from the FCC in Washington, DC B. No radio stations other than amateur may be retransmitted in the amateur service C. After prior approval has been obtained from the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) D. After prior approval has been obtained from the nearest FCC Engineer-in-Charge 3AA 13.1 B What kinds of one-way communications by amateur stations are not considered broadcasting? A. All types of one-way communications by amateurs are considered by the FCC as broadcasting B. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, emergency communications, information bulletins consisting solely of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur service, and telegraphy practice C. Only code practice transmissions conducted simultaneously on all available amateur bands below 30 MHz and conducted for more than 40 hours per week are not considered broadcasting D. Only actual emergency communications during a declared communications emergency are exempt 3AA 13.2 D Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service? A. Transmissions to remotely control a device at a distant location B. Transmissions to assist persons learning or improving their proficiency in Morse code C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station D. Transmission of music 3AA 13.3 D What kinds of one-way information bulletins may be transmitted by amateur stations? A. NOAA weather bulletins B. Commuter traffic reports from local radio stations C. Regularly scheduled announcements concerning amateur radio equipment for sale or trade D. Messages directed only to amateur operators consisting solely of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur service 3AA 13.4 C What types of one-way amateur communications may be transmitted by an amateur station? A. Beacon operation, radio control, practice code, retransmission of other services B. Beacon operation, radio control, transmitting an unmodulated carrier, NOAA weather bulletins C. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, information bulletins consisting solely of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur service, telegraphy practice and emergency communications D. Beacon operation, emergency-drill-practice transmissions, automatic retransmission of NOAA weather transmissions, code practice 3AA 14.1 D What types of material compensation, if any, may be involved in third party communications transmitted by an amateur station? A. Payment of an amount agreed upon by the amateur operator and the parties involved B. Assistance in maintenance of auxiliary station equipment C. Donation of amateur equipment to the control operator D. No compensation may be accepted 3AA 14.2 C What types of business communications, if any, may be transmitted by an amateur station on behalf of a third party? A. The FCC rules specifically prohibit communications with a business for any reason B. Business communications involving the sale of amateur radio equipment C. Communications to a business may be provided during an emergency as provided by the FCC rules D. Business communications aiding a broadcast station 3AA 14.3 D Does the FCC allow third-party messages when communicating with amateur radio operators in a foreign country? A. Third-party messages with a foreign country are only allowed on behalf of other amateurs. B. Yes, provided the third-party message involves the immediate family of one of the communicating amateurs C. Under no circumstances may US amateurs exchange third-party messages with an amateur in a foreign country D. Yes, when communicating with a person in a country with which the US shares a third-party agreement 3AA 15.1 A Under what circumstances, if any, may a third party participate in radio communications from an amateur station if the third party is ineligible to be a control operator of one of the stations? A. A control operator must be present at the control point and continuously monitor and supervise the third party participation. Also, contacts may only be made with amateurs in the US and countries with which the US has a third-party communications agreement B. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise the radio communication to insure compliance with the rules only if contacts are made with countries with which the US has no third-party communications agreement C. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise the radio communications to insure compliance with the rules. In addition, the control operator must key the transmitter and make the station identification D. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and supervise the radio communications to insure compliance with the rules. In addition, if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz, the control operator must transmit the call signs of both stations involved in the contact at ten minute intervals 3AA 15.2 C Where must the control operator be situated when a third party is participating in radio communications from an amateur station? A. If a radio remote control is used, the control operator may be physically separated from the control point, when provisions are incorporated to shut off the transmitter by remote control B. If the control operator supervises the third party until he or she is satisfied of the competence of the third party, the control operator may leave the control point C. The control operator must be present at the control point D. If the third party holds a valid radiotelegraph license issued by the FCC, no supervision is necessary 3AA 15.2 D What must the control operator do while a third party is participating in third party radio communications? A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph license, no supervision is necessary B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the transmitting frequency on another receiver, to insure that no interference is taking place C. If a radio control link is available the control operator may leave the room D. The control operator must continually monitor and supervise the third party's participation 3AA 15.4 B In an exchange of international third-party communications, when is the station identification required? A. Only at the beginning of the communication B. At the end of each exchange of communications C. The station identification procedure is not required during international third-party communications D. Only at the end of multiple exchanges of communications 3AA 16.1 B Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio communications containing obscene words? A. Obscene words are permitted when they do not cause interference to any other radio communication or signal B. Obscene words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions C. Obscene words are permitted when they are not transmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations D. Obscene words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air 3AA 16.2 D Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio communications containing indecent words? A. Indecent words are permitted when they do not cause interference to any other radio communication or signal B. Indecent words are permitted when they are not transmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations C. Indecent words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air D. Indecent words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions 3AA 16.3 C Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio communications containing profane words? A. Profane words are permitted when they are not transmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations B. Profane words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air C. Profane words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions D. Profane words are permitted when they do not cause interference to any other radio communication or signal 3AA 17.1 A Which of the following VHF/UHF bands may not be used by earth stations for satellite communications A. 6 meters B. 2 meters C. 23 centimeters D. 70 centimeters 3AB 1.1 A What is the meaning of: "Your report is five seven...."? A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone 3AB 1.2 C What is the meaning of: "Your report is three three.."? A. The contact is serial number thirty-three B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength 3AB 1.3 D What is the meaning of: "Your report is five nine plus 20dB..."? A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100 B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity D. A relative signal strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater than strength 9 3AB 2.1.1 B How should a contact be initiated through a station in repeater operation? A. Say "breaker, breaker 79." B. Call the desired station and then identify your own station C. Call "CQ" three times and identify three times D. Wait for a "CQ" to be called and then answer it 3AB 2.1.2. C Why should users of a station in repeater operation pause briefly between transmissions? A. To check the SWR of the repeater B. To reach for pencil and paper for third party traffic C. To listen for any hams wanting to break in D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch 3AB 2.1.3 A Why should users of a station in repeater operation keep their transmissions short and thoughtful? A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the repeater B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake C. To give any non-hams that are listening a chance to respond D. To keep long distance charges down 3AB 2.1.4 D What is the proper procedure to break into an ongoing QSO through a station in repeater operation? A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling B. Shout, "Break, Break!" to show that you're eager to join the conversation C. Turn on your 100 watt amplifier and override whoever is talking D. Send your call sign during a break between transmissions 3AB 2.1.5 B What is the purpose of repeater operation? A. To cut your power bill by using someone's higher power system B. To enable mobile and low power stations to extend their usable range C. To reduce your telephone bill D. To call the ham radio distributor 50 miles away 3AB 2.1.6 B What is meant by "making the repeater time out"? A. The repeater's battery supply has run out B. The repeater's transmission time limit has expired during a single transmission C. The warranty on the repeater duplexer has expired D. The repeater is in need of repairs 3AB 2.1.7 D During the commuter rush hours, which types of operation should relinquish the use of the repeater? A. Mobile operators B. Low power stations C. Highway traffic information nets D. Third-party traffic nets 3AB 2.2.1 C Why should simplex be used where possible instead of using a station in repeater operation? A. Farther distances can be reached B. To avoid long distance toll charges C. To avoid tying up the repeater unnecessarily D. To permit the testing of the effectiveness of your antenna 3AB 2.2.2 C When a frequency conflict arises between a simplex operation and a repeater operation, why does good Amateur practice call for the simplex operation to move to another frequency? A. The repeater's output power can be turned up to ruin the front end of the station in simplex operation B. There are more repeaters than simplex operators C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical D. Changing a repeater frequency requires the authorization of the Federal Communications Commission 3AB 2.3.1 D What is the usual input/output frequency separation for stations in repeater operation in the 2-meter wavelength band? A. 1 MHz B. 1.6 MHz C. 170 Hz D. 0.6 MHz 3AB 2.3.2 B What is the usual input/output frequency separation for stations in repeater operation in the 70-centimeter band? A. 1.6 MHz B. 5 MHz C. 600 kHz D. 5 kHz 3AB 2.3.3 A What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 6-meter station in repeater operation? A. 1 MHz B. 600 kHz C. 1.6 MHz D. 20 kHz 3AB 2.3.4 C What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 1.25-meter station in repeater operation? A. 1000 kHz B. 600 kHz C. 1600 kHz D. 1.6 GHz 3AB 2.4.1 D What is a REPEATER FREQUENCY COORDINATOR? A. Someone who coordinates the assembly of a repeater station B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of system to buy C. The club's repeater trustee D. A person or group that recommends frequency pairs for repeater usage 3AB 3.1 A Why should local amateur communications be conducted on VHF and UHF frequencies? A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long distance sky-wave communication B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally D. Because absorption is greater at VHF and UHF frequencies 3AB 3.2 B How can on-the-air transmissions be minimized during a lengthy transmitter testing or loading up procedure? A. Choose an unoccupied frequency B. Use a dummy antenna C. Use a non-resonant antenna D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading up procedure 3AB 3.3 C What is the proper Q signal to use to determine whether a frequency is in use before making a transmission? A. QRV? B. QRU? C. QRL? D. QRZ? 3AB 4.1 A What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telephony? A. Transmit MAYDAY B. Transmit QRRR C. Transmit QRZ D. Transmit SOS 3AB 4.2 D What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telegraphy? A. Transmit MAYDAY B. Transmit QRRR C. Transmit QRZ D. Transmit SOS 3AB 5.1.1 C What is one requirement you must meet before you can participate in RACES drills? A. You must be registered with ARRL B. You must be registered with a local racing organization C. You must be registered with the responsible civil defense organization D. You need not register with anyone to operate RACES 3AB 5.1.2 B What is the maximum amount of time allowed per week for RACES drills? A. Eight hours B. One hour C. As many as you want D. Six hours, but not more than one hour per day 3AB 5.2.1 D How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill? A. As emergency messages B. As amateur traffic C. As official government messages D. As drill or test messages 3AB 6.1.1 A What is the term used to describe first-response communications in an emergency situation? A. Tactical communications B. Emergency communications C. Formal message traffic D. National Traffic System messages 3AB 6.1.2 B What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command post" or "weather center" during an emergency? A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on B. They promote efficiency and coordination in public-service communications activities C. They are required by the FCC D. They promote goodwill among amateurs 3AB 6.2.1 D What is the term used to describe messages sent into or out of a disaster area that pertain to a person's well being? A. Emergency traffic B. Tactical traffic C. Formal message traffic D. Health and welfare traffic 3AB 6.3.1 B Why is it important to provide a means of operating your amateur station separate from the commercial AC power lines? A. So that you can take your station mobile B. So that you can provide communications in an emergency C. So that you can operate field day D. So that you will comply with Subpart 97.169 of the FCC Rules 3AB 6.3.2 C Which type of antenna would be a good choice as a part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of a communications emergency? A. A three-element quad B. A three-element Yagi C. A dipole D. A parabolic dish 3AC 1.1.1 A What is the IONOSPHERE? A. That part of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and free electrons exist to affect radio wave propagation B. The boundary between two air masses of different temperature and humidity, along which radio waves can travel C. The ball that goes on the top of a mobile whip antenna D. That part of the atmosphere where weather takes place 3AC 1.1.2 D What is the region of the outer atmosphere which makes long distance radiocommunications possible as a result of bending of radio waves? A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere C. Magnetosphere D. Ionosphere 3AC 1.1.3 C What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere? A. Thermal B. Ionized particle C. Ultraviolet D. Microwave 3AC 1.2.1 A Which ionospheric layer limits daytime radiocommunications in the 80-meter wavelength band to short distances? A. D layer B. F1 layer C. E layer D. F2 layer 3AC 1.2.2 B What is the lowest ionospheric layer? A. The A layer B. The D layer C. The E layer D. The F layer 3AC 1.3.1 B What is the lowest region of the ionosphere that is useful for long distance radio wave propagation? A. The D layer B. The E layer C. The F1 layer D. The F2 layer 3AC 1.4.1 D Which layer of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance sky wave radiocommunication? A. D layer B. E layer C. F1 layer D. F2 layer 3AC 1.4.2 B What are the two distinct sublayers of the F layer during the daytime? A. Troposphere and stratosphere B. F1 and F2 C. Electrostatic and electromagnetic D. D and E 3AC 1.4.3 D Which two daytime ionospheric layers combine into one layer at night? A. E and F1 B. D and E C. E1 and E2 D. F1 and F2 3AC 2.1 D Which layer of the ionosphere is most responsible for absorption of radio signals during daylight hours? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer E. The F2 layer D. The D layer 3AC 2.2 B When is ionospheric absorption most pronounced? A. When Tropospheric ducting occurs B. When radio waves enter the D Layer at low angles C. When radio waves travel to the F Layer D. When a temperature inversion occurs 3AC 2.3 A During daylight hours, what effect does the D Layer of the ionosphere have on 80-meter radio waves? A. The D Layer absorbs the signals B. The D Layer bends the radio waves out into space C. The D Layer refracts the radio waves back to Earth D. The D Layer has little or no effect on 80 meter radio wave propagation 3AC 2.4 B What causes IONOSPHERIC ABSORPTION of radio waves? A. A lack of D Layer ionization B. D Layer ionization C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E Layer D. Splitting of the F Layer 3AC 3.1 D What is usually the condition of the ionosphere just before sunrise? A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum B. Ionization is at a maximum C. The E layer is above the F layer D. Ionization is at a minimum 3AC 3.2 C At what time of day does maximum ionization of the ionosphere occur? A. Dusk B. Midnight C. Midday D. Dawn 3AC 3.3 A Minimum ionization of the ionosphere occurs daily at what time? A. Shortly before dawn B. Just after noon C. Just after dusk D. Shortly before midnight 3AC 3.4 B When is E layer ionization at a maximum? A. Dawn B. Midday C. Dusk D. Midnight 3AC 4.1 D What is the highest radio frequency that will be refracted back to Earth called? A. Lowest usable frequency B. Optimum working frequency C. Ultra high frequency D. Critical frequency 3AC 4.2 C What causes the MAXIMUM USABLE FREQUENCY to vary? A. Variations in the temperature of the air at ionospheric levels B. Upper-atmospheric wind patterns C. The amount of ultraviolet and other types of radiation received from the Sun D. Presence of ducting 3AC 4.3 A What does the term MAXIMUM USABLE FREQUENCY refer to? A. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach its destination in a single hop B. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach its destination in a single hop C. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to be absorbed in the lowest Ionospheric layer D. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to be absorbed in the lowest Ionospheric layer 3AC 5.1 C When two stations are within each other's skip zone on the frequency being used, what mode of propagation would it be desirable to use? A. Ground wave propagation B. Sky wave propagation C. Scatter-mode propagation D. Ionospheric ducting propagation 3AC 5.2 C You are in contact with a distant station and are operating at a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency. If the received signals are weak and somewhat distorted, what type of propagation are you probably experiencing? A. Troposheric ducting B. Line-of-sight propagation C. Backscatter propagation D. Ionospheric ducting propagation 3AC 6.1 A What is the transmission path of a wave that travels directly from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna called? A. Line of sight B. The sky wave C. The linear wave D. The plane wave 3AC 6.2 B How are VHF signals within the range of the visible horizon propagated? A. By sky wave B. By direct wave C. By plane wave D. By geometric wave 3AC 7.1 C Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere? A. F2 B. Ionosphere C. Troposphere D. Stratosphere 3AC 7.2 A What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio waves? A. It increases the distance over which they can be transmitted B. It decreases the distance over which they can be transmitted C. It tends to garble 2-meter phone transmissions D. It reverses the sideband of 2-meter phone transmissions 3AC 7.3 D What atmospheric phenomenon causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves? A. A very low pressure area B. An aurora to the north C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station D. A temperature inversion 3AC 7.4 A Tropospheric ducting occurs as a result of what phenomenon? A. A temperature inversion B. Sun spots C. An aurora to the north D. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station 3AC 7.5 B What atmospheric phenomenon causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred miles through stable air masses over oceans? A. Presence of a maritime polar air mass B. A widespread temperature inversion C. An overcast of cirriform clouds D. Atmospheric pressure of roughly 29 inches of mercury or higher 3AC 7.6 D In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting occur most often? A. LF B. MF C. HF D. VHF 3AD 1.1.1 C Where should the green wire in an AC line cord be attached in a power supply? A. To the fuse B. To the "hot" side of the power switch C. To the chassis D. To the meter 3AD 1.1.2 D Where should the black (or red) wire in a three wire line cord be attached in a power supply? A. To the filter capacitor B. To the DC ground C. To the chassis D. To the fuse 3AD 1.1.3 B Where should the white wire in a three wire line cord be attached in a power supply? A. To the side of the transformer's primary winding that has a fuse B. To the side of the transformer's primary winding without a fuse C. To the black wire D. To the rectifier junction 3AD 1.1.4 B Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a light socket made of brass, while the other one is silver colored? A. To prevent galvanic action B. To indicate correct wiring polarity C. To better conduct current D. To reduce skin effect 3AD 1.2.1 A How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually fatal? A. As little as 100 milliamperes may be fatal B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be fatal C. More than 20 amperes is needed to kill a human being D. No amount of current will harm you. Voltages of over 2000 volts are always fatal, however 3AD 1.2.2 A What is the minimum voltage considered to be dangerous to humans? A. 30 volts B. 100 volts C. 1000 volts D. 2000 volts 3AD 1.2.3 A How much electrical current flowing through the Human Body is usually painful? A. As little as 50 milliamperes may be painful B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be painful C. More than 20 amperes is needed to be painful to a human being D. No amount of current will be painful. Voltages of over 2000 volts are always painful, however 3AD 1.3.1 C Where should the main power-line switch for a high voltage power supply be situated? A. Inside the cabinet, to interrupt power when the cabinet is opened B. On the rear panel of the high-voltage supply C. Where it can be seen and reached easily D. This supply should not be switch operated 3AD 2.1.1 B How is a voltmeter typically connected to a circuit under test? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit 3AD 2.2.1 C How can the range of a voltmeter be extended? A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test C. By adding resistance in series with the meter D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter 3AD 3.1.1 A How is a ammeter typically connected to a circuit under test? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit 3AD 3.2.1 D How can the range of an ammeter be extended? A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test C. By adding resistance in series with the meter D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter 3AD 4.1 D What is a MULTIMETER? A. An instrument capable of reading SWR and power B. An instrument capable of reading resistance, capacitance and inductance C. An instrument capable of reading resistance and reactance D. An instrument capable of reading voltage, current and resistance 3AD 5.1.1 A Where in the antenna transmission line should a peak-reading wattmeter be attached to determine the transmitter power output? A. At the transmitter output B. At the antenna feedpoint C. One-half wavelength from the antenna feedpoint D. One-quarter wavelength from the transmitter output 3AD 5.1.2 C For the most accurate readings of a transmitter output power, where should the RF Wattmeter be inserted? A. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured one-quarter wavelength from the antenna feedpoint B. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured one-half wavelength from the antenna feedpoint C. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power measured at the transmitter antenna jack D. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power measured at the Transmatch output 3AD 5.1.3 B At what impedance are RF wattmeters usually designed to operate? A. 25 Ohms B. 50 Ohms C. 100 Ohms D. 300 Ohms 3AD 5.1.4 A What is a DIRECTIONAL WATTMETER? A. An instrument that measures forward or reflected power B. An instrument that measures the directional pattern of an antenna C. An instrument that measures the energy consumed by the transmitter D. An instrument that measures thermal heating in a load resistor 3AD 5.2.1 B If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 90 watts forward power and 10 watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power? A. 10 watts B. 80 watts C. 90 watts D. 100 watts 3AD 5.2.2 C If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 96 watts forward power and 4 watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power? A. 80 watts B. 88 watts C. 92 watts D. 100 watts 3AD 6.1 A What is a MARKER GENERATOR? A. A high stability oscillator that generates a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals B. A low stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of frequencies C. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's location relative the inner and outer markers at airports D. A high stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can be varied over a wide range 3AD 6.2 D What type of circuit is used to inject a frequency calibration signal into a communications receiver? A. A product detector B. A receiver incremental tuning circuit C. A balanced modulator D. A crystal calibrator 3AD 6.3 A How is a MARKER GENERATOR used? A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver C. To test the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter D. To test the frequency deviation of an FM transmitter 3AD 7.1 C What piece of test equipment produces a stable, low-level signal that can be set to a specific frequency? A. A wavemeter B. A reflectometer C. A signal generator D. A balanced modulator 3AD 7.2 B What is an RF signal generator commonly used for? A. Measuring RF signal amplitude B. Aligning receiver tuned circuits C. Adjusting the transmitter impedance-matching network D. Measuring transmission line impedance 3AD 8.1.1 D What is a REFLECTOMETER? A. An instrument used to measure signals reflected from the ionosphere B. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance C. An instrument used to measure transmission-line impedance D. An instrument used to measure standing wave ratio 3AD 8.1.2 D What is the device that can indicate an impedance mismatch in an antenna system? A. A field strength meter B. A set of lecher wires C. A wavemeter D. A reflectometer 3AD 8.2.1 A For best accuracy when adjusting the impedance match between an antenna and feedline, where should the match-indicating device be inserted? A. At the antenna feedpoint B. At the transmitter C. At the midpoint of the feedline D. Anywhere along the feedline 3AD 8.2.2 C Where should a reflectometer be inserted into a long antenna transmission line in order to obtain the most valid standing wave ratio indication? A. At any quarter-wavelength interval along the transmission line B. At the receiver end C. At the antenna end D. At any even half-wavelength interval along the transmission line 3AD 9.1 D When adjusting a transmitter filter circuit, what device is connected to the transmitter output? A. A multimeter B. A set of Litz wires C. A receiver D. A dummy antenna 3AD 9.2 B What is a DUMMY ANTENNA? A. An isotropic radiator B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements D. The image of an antenna, located below ground 3AD 9.3 C Of what material may a dummy antenna be made? A. A wire-wound resistor B. A diode and resistor combination C. A noninductive resistor D. A coil and capacitor combination 3AD 9.4 B What station accessory is used in place of an antenna during transmitter tests so that no signal is radiated? A. A Transmatch B. A dummy antenna C. A low-pass filter D. A decoupling resistor 3AD 9.5 A What is the purpose of a DUMMY LOAD? A. To allow off-the-air transmitter testing B. To reduce output power for QRP operation C. To give comparative signal reports D. To allow Transmatch tuning without causing interference 3AD 9.6 A How many watts should a dummy load for use with a 100-watt single-sideband phone transmitter be able to dissipate? A. A minimum of 100 watts continuous B. A minimum of 141 watts continuous C. A minimum of 175 watts continuous D. A minimum of 200 watts continuous 3AD 10.1 C What is an S-METER? A. A meter used to measure sideband suppression B. A meter used to measure spurious emissions from a transmitter C. A meter used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver D. A meter used to measure solar flux 3AD 10.2 A A meter that is used to generate relative signal strength in a receiver is known as what? A. An S-meter B. An RST-meter C. A signal deviation meter D. An SSB meter 3AD 11.1.1 B Large amounts of RF energy may cause damage to body tissue, depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors. How does RF energy effect body tissue? A. It causes radiation poisoning B. It heats the tissue C. It cools the tissue D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue 3AD 11.1.2 A Which body organ is most susceptible to damage from the heating effects of radio frequency radiation? A. Eyes B. Hands C. Heart D. Liver 3AD 11.2.1 D Scientists have devoted a great deal of effort to determine safe RF exposure limits. What organization has established an RF protection guide? A. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers B. The American Radio Relay League C. The Environmental Protection Agency D. The American National Standards Institute 3AD 11.2.2 B What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide? A. It protects you from unscrupulous radio dealers B. It sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances C. It sets transmitter power limits D. It sets antenna height requirements 3AD 11.2.3 B The American Nation Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances. In what frequency range is the maximum exposure level the most stringent (lowest)? A. 3 to 30 MHz B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 300 to 3000 MHz D. Above 1.5 GHz 3AD 11.2.4 D The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances. Why is the maximum exposure level the most stringent (lowest) in the ranges between 30 MHz and 300 MHz? A. There are fewer transmitters operating in this frequency range B. There are more transmitters operating in this frequency range C. Most transmissions in this frequency range are for an extended time D. Human body lengths are close to whole-body resonance in that range 3AD 11.2.5 B The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances. What is the maximum safe power output to the antenna terminal of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio, as set by this RF protection guide? A. 125 milliwatts B. 7 watts C. 10 watts D. 25 watts 3AD 11.3.1 C After you make internal tuning adjustments to your VHF power amplifier, what should you do before you turn the amplifier on? A. Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling B. Connect a noise bridge to eliminate any interference C. Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place D. Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause any interference 3AE 1.1.1 D What is meant by the term RESISTANCE? A. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit containing inductance B. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit containing capacitance C. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit containing reactance D. The opposition to the flow of current in an electrical circuit that does not contain reactance 3AE 1.2.1 A What is an OHM? A. The basic unit of resistance B. The basic unit of capacitance C. The basic unit of inductance D. The basic unit of admittance 3AE 1.2.2 D What is the unit measurement of Resistance? A. Volt B. Ampere C. Joule D. Ohm 3AE 1.3.1 B Two equal-value resistors are connected in series. How does the total resistance of this combination compare with the value of either resistor by itself? A. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor B. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor C. The total resistance is the same as the value of either resistor D. The total resistance is the square of the value of either resistor 3AE 1.3.2 D How does the total resistance of a string of series-connected resistors compare to the values of the individual resistors? A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of all the individual resistors B. The total resistance is the square root of the sum of the individual resistor values C. The total resistance is the sum of the squares of the individual resistor values D. The total resistance is the sum of all the individual resistance values 3AE 1.4.1 B Two equal-value resistors are connected in parallel. How does the total resistance of this combination compare with the value of either resistor by itself? A. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor B. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor C. The total resistance is the square of the value of either resistor D. The total resistance is the same as the value of either resistor 3AE 1.4.2 C How does the total resistance of a string of parallel-connected resistors compare to the values of the individual resistors? A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of the resistor values B. The total resistance is more than the highest-value resistor in the combination C. The total resistance is less than the smallest-value resistor in the combination D. The total resistance is same as the highest-value resistor in the combination 3AE 2.1 D What is OHM'S LAW? A. A mathematical relationship between resistance, voltage and power in a circuit B. A mathematical relationship between current, resistance and power in a circuit C. A mathematical relationship between current, voltage and power in a circuit D. A mathematical relationship between resistance, current and applied voltage in a circuit 3AE 2.2 A How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known? A. I = E / R B. P = I x E C. I = R x E D. I = E x R 3AE 2.3 C What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 amperes to it? A. 0.02 ohms B. 3 ohms C. 48 ohms D. 480 ohms 3AE 2.4 D The product of the current and what force gives the electrical power in a circuit? A. Magnetomotive force B. Centripetal force C. Electrochemical force D. Electromotive force 3AE 2.5 B What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt battery supplies 0.15 amperes to it? A. 8 Ohms B. 80 Ohms C. 100 Ohms D. 800 Ohms 3AE 2.6 D When 120 Volts is measured across a 4700-ohm Resistor, how much current is flowing through it? A. 39 Amperes B. 3.9 Amperes C. 0.26 Amperes D. 0.026 Amperes 3AE 2.7 D When 120 Volts is measured across a 47000-ohm Resistor, how much current is flowing through it? A. 392 A B. 39.2 A C. 26 mA D. 2.6 mA 3AE 2.8 A When 12 Volts is measured across a 4700-ohm Resistor, approximately how much current is flowing through it? A. 2.6 mA B. 26 mA C. 39.2 A D. 392 A 3AE 2.9 A When 12 Volts is measured across a 47000-ohm Resistor, approximately how much current is flowing through it? A. 255 uA B. 255 mA C. 3917 mA D. 3917 A 3AE 3.1.1 C What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store energy in a magnetic field? A. Admittance B. Capacitance C. Inductance D. Resistance 3AE 3.2.1 C What is the basic unit of Inductance? A. Coulomb B. Farad C. Henry D. Ohm 3AE 3.2.2 C What is a HENRY? A. The basic unit of admittance B. The basic unit of capacitance C. The basic unit of inductance D. The basic unit of resistance 3AE 3.2.3 B What is a MICROHENRY? A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-12) Henrys B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-6) Henrys C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-3) Henrys D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(6) Henrys 3AE 3.2.4 C What is a MILLIHENRY? A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-12) Henrys B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-6) Henrys C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-3) Henrys D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(6) Henrys 3AE 3.3.1 B Two equal-value inductors are connected in series. How does the total inductance of this combination compare with the value of either inductor by itself? A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor C. The total inductance is equal to the value of either inductor D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances 3AE 3.3.2 C How does the total inductance of a string of series-connected inductors compare to the values of the individual inductors? A. The total inductance is equal to the average of all the individual inductances B. The total inductance is equal to less than the value of the smallest inductance C. The total inductance is equal to the sum of all the individual inductances D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact inductances 3AE 3.4.1 A Two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel. How does the total inductance of this combination compare with the value of either inductor by itself? A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor C. The total inductance is equal to the square of either inductance D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances 3AE 3.4.2 B How does the total inductance of a string of parallel-connected inductors compare to the values of the individual inductors? A. The total inductance is equal to the sum of the inductances in the combination B. The total inductance is less than the smallest inductance value in the combination C. The total inductance is equal to the average of the inductances in the combination D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact inductances 3AE 4.1.1 A What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store energy in an electric field? A. Capacitance B. Inductance C. Resistance D. Tolerance 3AE 4.2.1 A What is the basic unit of capacitance? A. Farad B. Ohm C. Volt D. Ampere 3AE 4.2.2 B What is a MICROFARAD? A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-12)Farads B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-6) Farads C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-2) Farads D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(6) Farads 3AE 4.2.3 A What is a PICOFARAD? A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-12) Farads B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-6) Farads C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-2) Farads D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(6) Farads 3AE 4.2.4 B What is a FARAD? A. A basic unit of resistance B. A basic unit of capacitance C. A basic unit of inductance D. A basic unit of admittance 3AE 4.3.1 C Two equal-value capacitors are connected in series. How does the total capacitance of this combination compare with the value of either capacitor by itself? A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor B. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either capacitor C. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances 3AE 4.3.2 B How does the total capacitance of a string of series-connected capacitors compare to the values of the individual capacitors? A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of all the capacitances in the combination B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of capacitance C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances in the combination D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact capacitances 3AE 4.4.1 A Two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel. How does the total capacitance of this combination compare with the value of either capacitor by itself? A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor B. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor C. The total capacitance is equal to value of either capacitor D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances 3AE 4.4.2 A How does the total capacitance of a string of parallel-connected capacitors compare to the values of the individual capacitors? A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the capacitances in the combination B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value capacitance in the combination C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances in the combination D. No comparisons can be made without knowing the exact capacitances 3AF 1.1.1 B What are the four common types of resistor construction? A. Carbon-film, metal-film, micro-film and wire-film B. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, metal-film and wire-wound C. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, electrolytic and metal-film D. Carbon-film, ferrite, carbon-composition and metal-film 3AF 1.2.1 D What is the primary function of a resistor? A. To store an electric charge B. To store a magnetic field C. To match a high-impedance source to a low-impedance load D. To limit the current in an electric circuit 3AF 1.2.2 C What is a variable resistor? A. A resistor that changes value when an AC voltage is applied to it B. A device that can transform a variable voltage into a constant voltage C. A resistor with a slide or contact that makes the resistance variable D. A resistor that changes value when it is heated 3AF 1.3.1 A What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate? A. The value of the resistor in Ohms B. The resistance tolerance in percent C. The power rating in Watts D. The value of the resistor in henrys 3AF 1.3.2 B How can a carbon resistor's electrical tolerance rating be found? A. By using a wavemeter B. By using the resistor's color code C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors D. By using the Baudot code 3AF 1.3.3 B What does the does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate? A. The value of the resistor in ohms B. The resistance tolerance in percent C. The power rating in watts D. The resistor composition 3AF 1.3.4 C When the color bands on a group of resistors indicate that they all have the same resistance, what further information about each resistor is needed in order to select those that have nearly equal value? A. The working voltage rating of each resistor B. The composition of each resistor C. The tolerance of each resistor D. The current rating of each resistor 3AF 1.4.1 A Why do resistors generate heat? A. They convert electrical energy to heat energy B. They exhibit reactance C. Because of skin effect D. To produce thermionic emission 3AF 1.4.2 C Why would a large size resistor be substituted for a smaller one of the same resistance? A. To obtain better response B. To obtain a higher current gain C. To increase power dissipation capability D. To produce a greater parallel impedance 3AF 1.5.1 B What is the symbol used to represent a fixed resistor on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AF 1.5.2 C What is the symbol used to represent a variable resistor on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AF 2.1.1 D What is an inductor core? A. The point at which an inductor is tapped to produce resonance B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer C. An insulating material placed between the plates of an inductor D. The central portion of a coil; may be made from air, iron, brass or other material 3AF 2.1.2 A What are the component parts of a coil? A. The wire in the winding and the core material B. Two conductive plates and an insulating material C. Two or more layers of silicon material D. A donut-shaped iron core and a layer of insulating tape 3AF 2.1.3 D Describe an INDUCTOR. A. A semiconductor in a conducting shield B. Two parallel conducting plates C. A straight wire conductor mounted inside a Faraday shield D. A coil of conducting wire 3AF 2.1.4 C For radio frequency power applications, which type of Inductor has the least amount of loss? A. Magnetic wire B. Iron core C. Air-core D. Slug-tuned 3AF 2.2.1 D What is an inductor? A. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field B. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower voltage C. An electronic component that opposes DC while allowing AC to pass D. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field 3AF 2.2.2 C What are the electrical properties of an inductor? A. An inductor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage B. An inductor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in current C. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in current D. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in voltage 3AF 2.3.1 D What factors determine the amount of inductance in a coil? A. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core and whether the coil is mounted horizontally of vertically B. The diameter of the core, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used in the wire C. The type of material used in the core, the number of turns used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil D. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil 3AF 2.3.2 B What can be done to raise the inductance of a 5-microhenry air-core coil to a 5-millihenry coil of the same physical dimensions? A. The coil can be wound on a non-conducting tube B. The coil can be wound on an iron core C. Both ends of the coil can be brought around to form the shape of a doughnut, or toroid D. The coil must be made of a heavier-gauge wire 3AF 2.3.3 A As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to its inductance? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It becomes voltage-dependent 3AF 2.3.4 B As a brass core is inserted in a coil, what happens to its inductance? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It becomes voltage-dependent 3AF 2.4.1 A What is the symbol used to represent an adjustable inductor on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AF 2.4.2 B What is the symbol used to represent an iron core inductor on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AF 2.4.3 C What is the symbol used to represent an inductor wound over a toroidal core on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AF 3.1.1 D What is a capacitor dielectric? A. The insulating material used for the plates B. The conducting material used between the plates C. The ferrite material that the plates are mounted on D. The insulating material between the plates 3AF 3.1.2 A What are the component parts of a capacitor? A. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material between them B. The wire used in the winding and the core material C. Two or more layers of silicon material D. Two insulating plates with a conductive material between them 3AF 3.1.3 C What is an ELECTROLYTIC CAPACITOR? A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica insulation C. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plates through electrochemical action D. A capacitor whose value varies with applied voltage 3AF 3.1.4 C What is a PAPER CAPACITOR? A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica insulation C. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a layer of paper D. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plate through electrochemical action 3AF 3.2.1 B What is a capacitor? A. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field B. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field C. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower voltage D. An electronic component that converts power into heat 3AF 3.2.2 D What are the electrical properties of a capacitor? A. A capacitor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in current B. A capacitor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in current C. A capacitor stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change in voltage D. A capacitor stores a charge electrostacically and opposes a change in voltage 3AF 3.2.3 A What factors must be considered when selecting a capacitor for a circuit? A. Type of capacitor, capacitance and voltage rating B. Type of capacitor, capacitance and the kilowatt-hour rating C. The amount of capacitance, the temperature coefficient and the KVA rating D. The type of capacitor, the microscopy coefficient and the temperature coefficient 3AF 3.2.4 B How are the characteristics of a capacitor usually specified? A. In volts and amperes B. In microfarads and volts C. In ohms and watts D. In millihenrys and amperes 3AF 3.3.1 A What factors determine the amount of capacitance in a capacitor? A. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the separation between the plates and the number of plates B. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the number of plates and the diameter of the leads connected to the plates C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type D. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the number of plates and the type of material used for the protective coating 3AF 3.3.2 B As the plate area of a capacitor increases, what happens to its capacitance? A. Decreases B. Increases C. Stays the same D. Becomes voltage dependent 3AF 3.3.3 D As the plate spacing of a capacitor is increased, what happens to its capacitance? A. Increases B. Stays the same C. Becomes voltage dependent D. Decreases 3AF 3.4.1 D What is the symbol used to represent an electrolytic capacitor on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AF 3.4.2 A What is the symbol used to represent a variable capacitor on schematic diagrams? A. Symbol A B. Symbol B C. Symbol C D. Symbol D 3AG 1.1.1 A Which frequencies are attenuated by a Low Pass Filter? A. Those above its cut-off frequency B. Those within its cut-off frequency C. Within 50 kHz on either side of its cut-off frequency D. Those below its cut-off frequency 3AG 1.1.2 D What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency and blocks electrical energy above that frequency? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input Filter D. A low-pass filter 3AG 1.2.1 C Why does virtually every modern transmitter have a built-in low-pass filter connected to its output? A. To attenuate frequencies below its cutoff point B. To attenuate low frequency interference to other amateurs C. To attenuate excess harmonic radiation D. To attenuate excess fundamental radiation 3AG 1.2.2 B You believe that excess harmonic radiation from your transmitter is causing interference to your television receiver. What is one possible solution for this problem? A. Install a low-pass filter on the television receiver B. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter output C. Install a high-pass filter on the transmitter output D. Install a band-pass filter on the television receiver 3AG 2.1.1 B What circuit passes electrical energy above a certain frequency and attenuates electrical energy below that frequency? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter 3AG 2.2.1 A Where is the proper place to install a high-pass filter? A. At the antenna terminals of a television receiver B. Between a transmitter and a Transmatch C. Between a Transmatch and the transmission line D. On a transmitting antenna 3AG 2.2.2 B Your Amateur Radio transmissions cause interference to your television receiver even though you have installed a low-pass filter at the transmitter output. What is one possible solution for this problem? A. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter terminals B. Install a high-pass filter at the television antenna terminals C. Install a low-pass filter at the television antenna terminals also D. Install a band-pass filter at the television antenna terminals 3AG 3.1.1 A What circuit attenuates electrical energy above a certain frequency and below a lower frequency? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter 3AG 3.1.2 D What general range of RF energy does a band-pass filter reject? A. All frequencies above a specified frequency B. All frequencies below a specified frequency C. All frequencies above the upper limit of the band in question D. All frequencies above a specified frequency and below a lower specified frequency 3AG 3.2.1 A The IF stage of a communications receiver uses a filter with a peak response at the intermediate frequency. What term describes this filter response? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter frequency 3AG 4.1.1 C What circuit is likely to be found in all types of receivers? A. An audio filter B. A beat frequency oscillator C. A detector D. An RF amplifier frequency 3AG 4-1.2 D What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent? 旼컴컴컫컴컴컴컴컴컴컫컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴� ANTENNA � 旼컴좔컴커 旼컴좔컴커 旼컴컴컴컨컴커 읕쩡� � � � � � � POWER � � � � VFO 쳐컴>� DRIVER 쳐컴>� AMPLIFIER 쳐�>켸 � 읕컴컴컴켸 읕컴쩡컴켸 읕컴컴컴컫컴켸 � 旼컴컴컴커 � 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 � � � POWER � � � TELEGRAPH � � 읕캑 SUPPLY � 읕캑 KEY 쳐켸 읕컴컴컴켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 A. A simple packet-radio transmitter B. A simple crystal controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A VFO-controlled transmitter 3AG 4-1.3 B What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent? ANTENNA 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴커 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 읕쩡� � CRYSTAL � � � � POWER � � � OSCILLATOR 쳐컴>� DRIVER 쳐컴>� AMPLIFIER 쳐�>켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴컴� 읕컴쩡컴켸 읕컴컴컴컫컴켸 � 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 � � � TELEGRAPH � � 읕캑 KEY 쳐켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 A. A simple packet-radio transmitter B. A simple crystal controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A VFO-controlled transmitter 3AG 4-1.4 B What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? ANTENNA 읕쩡� 旼컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 旼컴컴� 旼컴컴컴컴컴� � � � � IF � � � � AUDIO � 읕�>� MIXER 쳐컴>� AMPLIFIER 쳐>� ? 쳐>� AMPLIFIER �>敏컴커 읕컴쩡컴� 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 읕컫컴� 읕컴컴컴컫컴� 읒컴켸 旼컴좔컴� 旼컨컴� � OSC � � BFO � 읕컴컴컴� 읕컴컴� A. An AGC circuit B. A detector C. A power supply D. A VFO circuit 3AG 4-1.5 D What type of device does this block diagram represent? 旼컴컴컫컴컴컴컴컴컴컫컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴� ANTENNA � 旼컴좔컴커 旼컴좔컴커 旼컴컴컴컨컴커 읕쩡� � � � � � � POWER � � � � VFO 쳐컴>� DRIVER 쳐컴>� AMPLIFIER 쳐�>켸 � 읕컴컴컴켸 읕컴쩡컴켸 읕컴컴컴컫컴켸 � 旼컴컴컴커 � 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 � � � POWER � � � TELEGRAPH � � 읕캑 SUPPLY � 읕캑 KEY 쳐켸 읕컴컴컴켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 A. A double-conversion receiver B. A variable-frequency oscillator C. A simple superheterodyne receiver D. A simple CW transmitter 3AG 4-2.1 D What type of device does this block diagram represent? ANTENNA 읕쩡� � 旼컴컴컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴커 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 旼컴컴컴컴커 � � RF � � � � WIDE � � IF � � � �>� AMPLIFIER �>� MIXER �>� FILTER �>� AMPLIFIER �>� LIMITER 쳐� 읕컴컴컴컴컴� 읕컫컴컴� 읕컴컴컴켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 읕컴컴컴컴켸 � � 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴�<컴컴컴컴컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴좔컴컴� � 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴� � � � � FREQUENCY � � AUDIO � Speaker � OSCILLATOR � �>� DISCRIMINATOR �>� AMPLIFIER �>쩟컴커 읕컴컴컴컴컴컴� 읕컴컴컴컴컴컴컴� 읕컴컴컴컴컴컴� 읒컴켸 A. A double-conversion receiver B. A variable-frequency oscillator C. A simple superheterodyne receiver D. A simple FM receiver 3AG 4-2.2 C What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? 旼컴컴컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴커 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 旼컴컴커 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 XX컴� AUDIO � 쿎LIPPER � � CRYSTAL � � � � � XX � AMPLIFIER �>� FILTER 쳐� � OSCILLATOR �>� ? �>� MULTIPLIER 쳐� mic 읕컴컴컴컴컴� 읕컴컴컴켸 � 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 읕컴쩡켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 � 읕�>컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴켸 � 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴<컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴컴� � 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴� 旼컴컴컴컴컴커 旼컴컴컴컴컴컴� ANTENNA � � � � � � POWER � 읕쩡� 읕컴� MULTIPLIER 쳐�>� MULTIPLIER �>� AMPLIFIER 쳐컴컴켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴컴� 읕컴컴컴컴컴켸 읕컴컴컴컴컴컴� A. A band-pass filter B. A crystal oscillator C. A reactance modulator D. A rectifier modulator 3AH 1.1 A What is the meaning of the term MODULATION? A. The process of varying some characteristic of a carrier wave for the purpose of conveying information B. The process of recovering audio information from a received signal C. The process of increasing the average power of a single-sideband transmission D. The process of suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband transmitter 3AH 2.1.1 A If the modulator circuit of your FM transmitter fails, what emission type would likely result? A. An unmodulated carrier wave B. A phase modulated carrier wave C. An amplitude modulated carrier wave D. A frequency modulated carrier wave 3AH 2.1.2 B What emission does not have sidebands resulting from modulation? A. AM phone B. Test C. FM phone D. RTTY 3AH 2.2.1 C What is the FCC emission designator for a Morse code telegraphy signal produced by switching the transmitter output on and off? A. Test B. AM phone C. CW D. RTTY 3AH 2.2.2 A What is CW? A. Morse code telegraphy using amplitude modulation B. Morse code telegraphy using frequency modulation C. Morse code telegraphy using phase modulation D. Morse code telegraphy using pulse modulation 3AH 2.3.1 B What is RTTY? A. Amplitude-keyed telegraphy B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy C. Frequency-modulated telephony D. Phase-modulated telephony 3AH 2.3.2 A What is the emission designation for telegraphy by frequency shift keying without the use of a modulating tone? A. RTTY B. MCW C. CW D. Single-sideband phone 3AH 2.4.1 B What emission type results when an on/off keyed audio tone is applied to the microphone input of an FM transmitter? A. RTTY B. MCW C. CW D. Single-sideband phone 3AH 2.4.2 D What is tone-modulated international Morse code telegraphy? A. Telephony produced by audio fed into an FM transmitter B. Telegraphy produced by on/off keyed audio tone fed into a CW transmitter C. Telegraphy produced by on/off keying of the carrier amplitude D. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone fed into an FM transmitter 3AH 2.5.1 A What is the emission designated as "MCW"? A. Frequency-modulated telegraphy using audio tones B. Frequency-modulated telephony C. Frequency-modulated facsimile using audio tones D. Phase-modulated television 3AH 2.5.2 B In an ITU emission designator like A1A, what does the first symbol describe? A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier B. The type of modulation of the main carrier C. The speed of a radiotelegraph transmission D. The type of the information to be transmitted 3AH 2.5.3 C What emission type results when an on-off keyed audio oscillator is connected to the microphone jack of an FM phone transmitter? A. SS B. RTTY C. MCW D. Image 3AH 2.6.1 A In an ITU emission designator like F3B, what does the second symbol describe? A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier B. The type of modulation of the main carrier C. The type of information to be transmitted D. The frequency modulation index of a carrier 3AH 2.6.2 B How would you transmit packet using an FM 2-meter transceiver? A. Use your telegraph key to interrupt the carrier wave B. Modulate your FM transmitter with audio tones from a terminal node controller C. Use your mike for telephony D. Use your touch-tone (DTMF) key pad to signal in Morse code 3AH 2.7.1 D What type of emission results when speaking into the microphone of a 2-meter FM hand-held transceiver? A. Amplitude modulated phone B. Code telegraphy C. An unmodulated carrier wave D. Frequency modulated phone 3AH 2.7.2 B What emission type do most 2-meter FM transmitters transmit? A. Interrupted pure carrier wave B. Frequency modulated phone C. Single-sideband voice emissions D. Amplitude modulated carrier waves 3AH 2.8.1 C What is the most important consideration when installing a 10-meter dipole inside an attic? A. It will exhibit a low angle of radiation B. The dipole must always be run horizontally polarized C. It will be covered by an insulation to prevent fire and high enough to prevent being accidentally touched during transmission D. Dipoles usually don't work in attics 3AH 2.8.2 D Which type of transmitter will produce a frequency modulated carrier wave? A. A CW transmitter B. An amplitude modulation transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A phase modulated transmitter 3AH 3.1 A What is the term used to describe a constant-amplitude radio-frequency signal? A. An RF carrier B. An AF carrier C. A sideband carrier D. A subcarrier 3AH 3.2 B What is another name for an unmodulated radio-frequency signal? A. An AF carrier B. An RF carrier C. A sideband carrier D. A subcarrier 3AH 4.1 C What characteristic makes FM telephony especially well-suited for local VHF/UHF radio communications? A. Good audio fidelity and intelligibility under weak-signal conditions B. Better rejection of multipath distortion than the AM modes C. Good audio fidelity and high signal-to-noise ratio above a certain signal amplitude threshold D. Better carrier frequency stability than the AM modes 3AH 5.1 D What emission is produced by a transmitter using a reactance modulator? A. CW B. Unmodulated carrier C. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone D. Phase modulated phone 3AH 5.2 C What other emission does phase modulation most resemble? A. Amplitude modulation B. Pulse modulation C. Frequency modulation D. Single-sideband modulation 3AH 6.1 D Many communications receivers have several IF filters that can be selected by the operator. Why do these filters have different bandwidths? A. Because some ham bands are wider than others B. Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver sensitivity C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings D. Because some emission types occupy a wider frequency range than others 3AH 6.1.2 C List the following signals in order of increasing bandwidth (narrowest signal first): CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice. A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice 3AH 7.1.1 D To what is the deviation of an FM transmission proportional? A. Only the frequency of the audio modulating signal B. The frequency and amplitude of the audio modulating frequency C. The duty cycle of the audio modulating signal D. Only the amplitude of the audio modulating signal 3AH 7.2.1 B What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter? A. Increased transmitter power consumption B. Out of channel emissions (splatter) C. Increased transmitter range D. Inadequate carrier suppression 3AH 7.2.2 C What is SPLATTER? A. Interference to adjacent signals caused by excessive transmitter keying speeds B. Interference to adjacent signals caused by improper transmitter neutralization C. Interference to adjacent signals caused by overmodulation of a transmitter D. Interference to adjacent signals caused by parasitic oscillations at the antenna 3AI 1-1.1 A What antenna type best strengthens signals from a particular direction while attenuating those from other directions? A. A beam antenna B. An isotropic antenna C. A monopole antenna D. A vertical antenna 3AI 1-1.2 D What is a directional antenna? A. An antenna whose parasitic elements are all constructed to be directors B. An antenna that radiates in direct line-of-sight propagation, but not sky-wave or skip propagation C. An antenna permanently mounted so as to radiate in only one direction D. An antenna that radiates more strongly in some directions than others 3AI 1-1.3 C What is a Yagi antenna? A. Half-wavelength elements stacked vertically and excited in phase B. Quarter-wavelength elements arranged horizontally and excited out of phase C. Half-wavelength linear driven element(s) with parasitically excited parallel linear elements D. Quarter-wavelength, triangular loop elements 3AI 1-1.4 A What is the general configuration of the radiating elements of a horizontally polarized Yagi? A. Two or more straight, parallel elements arranged in the same horizontal plane B. Vertically stacked square or circular loops arranged in parallel horizontal planes C. Two or more wire loops arranged in parallel vertical planes D. A vertical radiator arranged in the center of an effective RF ground plane 3AI 1-1.5 C What type of parasitic beam antenna uses two or more straight metal tubing elements arranged physically parallel to each other? A. A delta loop antenna B. A quad antenna C. A Yagi antenna D. A Zepp antenna 3AI 1-1.6 B How many directly driven elements does a Yagi antenna have? A. None; they are all parasitic B. One C. Two D. All elements are directly driven 3AI 1-1.7 A What is parasitic beam antenna? A. An antenna where the director and reflector elements receive their RF excitation by induction or radiation from the driven elements B. An antenna where wave traps are used to assure magnetic coupling among the elements C. An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the feed line D. An antenna where the driven element receives its RF excitation by induction or radiation from the directors 3AI 1-2.1 B What is a cubical quad antenna? A. Four parallel metal tubes, each approximately 1/2 electrical wavelength long B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one electrical wavelength long C. A vertical conductor 1/4 electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom D. A center-fed wire 1/2 electrical wavelength long 3AI 1-2.2 B What kind of antenna array is composed of a square full-wave closed loop driven element with parallel parasitic element(s)? A. Delta loop B. Cubical quad C. Dual rhombic D. Stacked Yagi 3AI 1-2.3 D Approximately how long is one side of the driven element of a cubical quad antenna? A. 2 electrical wavelengths B. 1 electrical wavelength C. 1/2 electrical wavelength D. 1/4 electrical wavelength 3AI 1-2.4 C Approximately how long is the wire in the driven element of a cubical quad antenna? A. 1/4 electrical wavelength B. 1/2 electrical wavelength C. 1 electrical wavelength D. 2 electrical wavelengths 3AI 1-3.1 A What is a delta loop antenna? A. A variation of the cubical quad antenna with triangular elements B. A large copper ring used, direction finding C. An antenna system composed of three vertical antennas arranged in a triangular shape D. An antenna made from several coils of wire on an insulating form 3AI 2-1.1 B To what does the term horizontal as applied to wave polarization refer? A. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface B. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate horizontally to the destination 3AI 2-1.2 C What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when the feedpoint is in the center of a horizontal side? A. Circular B. Helical C. Horizontal D. Vertical 3AI 2-1.3 C What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's surface and the feedpoint is at the bottom corner? A. Circular B. Helical C. Horizontal D. Vertical 3AI 2-2.1 D What is the polarization of electromagnetic waves radiated from a half- wavelength antenna perpendicular to the earth's surface? A. Circularly polarized waves B. Horizontally polarized waves C. Parabolically polarized waves D. Vertically polarized waves 3AI 2-2.2 D What is the electromagnetic wave polarization of most man-made electrical noise radiation in the HF/VHF spectrum? A. Horizontal B. Left-hand circular C. Right-hand circular D. Vertical 3AI 2-2.3 C To what does the term vertical as applied to wave polarization refer? A. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface B. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate vertically into the ionosphere 3AI 2-2.4 D What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when the feed point is in the center of a vertical side? A. Circular B. Helical C. Horizontal D. Vertical 3AI 2-2.5 D What electromagnetic polarization does a cubical quad antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's surface and the feedpoint is at a side corner? A. Circular B. Helical C. Horizontal D. Vertical 3AI 3-1.1 D What is meant by the term standing wave ratio? A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line B. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line 3AI 3-1.2 A What is standing wave ratio a measure of? A. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on a feed line B. The ratio of maximum to minimum reactance on a feed line C. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistance on a feed line D. The ratio of maximum to minimum sidebands on a feed line 3AI 3-2.1 A What is meant by the term forward power? A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna B. The power radiated from the front of a directional antenna C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by building and trees 3AI 3-2.2 B What is meant by the term reflected power? A. The power radiated from the back of a directional antenna B. The power returned to the transmitter from the antenna C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by buildings and trees 3AI 3-3.1 D What happens to the power loss in an unbalanced feed line as the standing wave ratio increases? A. It is unpredictable B. It becomes nonexistent C. It decreases D. It increases 3AI 3-3.2 C What type of feed line is best suited to operating at a high standing wave ratio? A. Coaxial cable B. Flat ribbon "twin lead" C. Parallel open-wire line D. Twisted pair 3AI 3-3.3 C What happens to RF energy not delivered to the antenna by a lossy coaxial cable? A. It is radiated by the feed line B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground C. Some of it is dissipated as heat in the conductors and dielectric D. It is canceled because of the voltage ratio of forward power to reflected power in the feed line 3AI 4-1.1 D What is a balanced line? A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to balance out harmonics C. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at even intervals D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground 3AI 4-1.2 C What is an unbalanced line? A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to suppress harmonics C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground D. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at uneven intervals 3AI 4-2.1 B What is a balanced antenna? A. A symmetrical antenna with one side of the feedpoint connected to ground B. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is symmetrical about the feed point C. A symmetrical antenna with both sides of the feed point connected to ground to balance out harmonics D. An antenna designed to be mounted in the center 3AI 4-2.2 A What is an unbalanced antenna? A. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is not symmetrical about the feed point B. A symmetrical antenna, having neither half connected to ground C. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is symmetrical about the feed point D. A symmetrical antenna with both halves coupled to ground at uneven intervals 3AI 4-3.1 A What device can be installed on a balanced antenna so that it can be fed through a coaxial cable? A. A balun B. A loading coil C. A triaxial transformer D. A wavetrap 3AI 4-3.2 B What is a balun? A. A device that can be used to convert an antenna designed to be fed at the center so that it may be fed at one end B. A device that may be installed on a balanced antenna so that it may be fed with unbalanced feed line C. A device that can be installed on an antenna to produce horizontally polarized or vertically polarized waves D. A device used to allow an antenna to operate on more than one band 3AI 5-1.1 C List the following types of feed line in order of increasing attenuation per 100 feet of the line (list the line with the lowest attenuation first): RG-8, RG-58, RG-174 and open-wire line. A. RG-174, RG-58, RG-8, open-wire line B. RG-8, open-wire line, RG-58, RG-174 C. Open-wire line, RG-8, RG-58, RG-174 D. Open-wire line, RG-174, RG-58, RG-8 3AI 5-1.2 A You have installed a tower 150 feet from your radio shack, and have a 6-meter Yagi antenna on top. Which of the following feed lines should you choose to feed this antenna: RG-8, RG-58, RG-59 or RG-174 A. RG-8 B. RG-58 C. RG-59 D. RG-174 3AI 5-2.1 C You have a 200-foot coil of RG-58 coaxial cable attached to your antenna, but the antenna is only 50 feet from your radio. To minimize feed-line loss, what should you do with the excess cable? A. Cut off the excess cable to an even number of wavelengths long B. Cut off the excess cable to an odd number of wavelengths long C. Cut off the excess cable D. Roll the excess cable into a coil a tenth of a wavelength in diameter 3AI 5-2.2 B How does feed-line length affect signal loss? A. The length has no effect on signal loss B. As length increases, signal loss increases C. As length decreases, signal loss increases D. The length is inversely proportional to signal loss 3AI 5-3.1 B What is the general relationship between frequencies passing through a feed line and the losses in the feed line? A. Loss is independent of frequency B. Loss increases with increasing frequency C. Loss decreases with increasing frequency D. There is no predictable relationship 3AI 5-3.2 A As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to conductor losses in a feed line? A. The losses decrease B. The losses increase C. The losses remain the same D. The losses become infinite 3AI 5-3.3 B As operating frequency increases, what happens to conductor losses in a feed line? A. The losses decrease B. The losses increase C. The losses remain the same D. The losses decrease to zero 3AI 6-1.1 D You are using open-wire feed line in your Amateur Radio station. Why should you ensure that no one can come in contact with the feed line while you are transmitting? A. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will cause a short circuit, probably damaging your transmitter B. Because the wire is so small they may break it C. Because contact with the feel line while transmitting will cause parasitic radiation D. Because high RF voltages can be present on open-wire feed line 3AI 6-2.1 C How can you minimize exposure to radio frequency energy from your transmitting antennas? A. Use vertical polarization B. Use horizontal polarization C. Mount the antennas where no one can come near them D. Mount the antenna close to the ground